- Jun 28, 2003
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I know I bring up questions about the canon a lot, primarily because I see it as a fascinating subject. I was doing some looking around and in both of these secular sources (mentioned in the subject), it mentions (under Dueterocanon) that they were not in the original Roman Catholic canon but were added in 1548, bla bla bla. Same old story.
Well, I'm reading through the sessions of the Council of Trent and I'm not seeing any difference between their canon, or how they phrase their acceptance of it, then comapred with the Council of Florence, or 2 Nicea, Hippo, Carthage ect?
I understand that it's a common thing to say that Trent stated the canon infallibly, but how did Trent do this infallibly. What was different about how Trent stated its authority? I'm reading the same canon as 1200 years prior, and I'm reading essentially the same "foot notes" in their written sessions saying it is canon. Why was Trent different?
-Spotty
Well, I'm reading through the sessions of the Council of Trent and I'm not seeing any difference between their canon, or how they phrase their acceptance of it, then comapred with the Council of Florence, or 2 Nicea, Hippo, Carthage ect?
I understand that it's a common thing to say that Trent stated the canon infallibly, but how did Trent do this infallibly. What was different about how Trent stated its authority? I'm reading the same canon as 1200 years prior, and I'm reading essentially the same "foot notes" in their written sessions saying it is canon. Why was Trent different?
-Spotty