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Does this scripture refute OSAS? [Updated]

Chinchilla

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Paul spoke of death , it is appointed to man once to die both saved and lost . Lost people don't die because they are not saved but because they sinned .

Paul did not talk about second death.
 
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Blood Bought 1953

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Excellant post. The problem with the legalists here is that they have never had their hearts made contrite by the Holy Spirit.Their self-righteousness has blinded them to the fact that they need to acknowledge their absolute wretchedness before a Holy God.If and when they are blessed enough to see themselves as the utterly lost sinners that they are and that the only reason anybody is saved is due to the Blood Of Christ and the Grace of God, only then will they abandon the Judaizers greatest delusion......” Jesus saves—- BUT.” As Paul warned, they pervert the true Gospel, Christ is no benefit to them and they are “ accursed”. There is a “ fear and trembling” involved in our salvation.It comes when you really SEE yourself for the vile thing that you are.Understanding this and that God can forgive you anyway and provide you with everything you need to be saved is the impetus for living a life that is pleasing to Him.Its a life of FAITH plus nothing. “The just shall live by faith”.....legalists never get it.I hope Newbies to the faith simply BELIEVE 1 cor15:1-4 for their salvation and don’t make the mistake of trying to add to it.Trust God and if you do He will put His Spirit in you and you will FIND yourself doing the things that He wants from you.He wants you to be transformed into the image of His Son.You can change your outside and fool many like some in here do.......or you can let Him change the inside.Only He can do that.
 
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MDC

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Amen!
 
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JIMINZ

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Just a question, what is it in these verses, that brings you to the conclusion that this is a Parable?
 
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PeaceByJesus

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Why are you verbosely arguing against faith without works when I have consistently stated that saving faith is only that which effect works? Nor did i ever express that i believe that doing good as a part of salvation is immoral? It is not the basis for justification but again, faith without works is dead, and works justify one as being a believer, confirming one is saved. Why then are you fit for further attempts to reason with you??

As for some sins being not unto dead, as said, while not all sin is the same, and some can bring severe chastisement, even death, yet as said, the wages of sins is death, and ultimately all sins are unto death. And as said and also ignored, your proof text does not say "sins not unto death," but "a sin," for which prayer is not exhorted, and is not sins like fornication.

But in order to escape your problem of having to know, remember and confess every sin as a believer, you must come up with this artificial distinction and unreasonable recalcitrant reiteration despite what counters you.

I am thus done with trying to reason with you and your unique false teaching.

Again, may God peradventure grant you "repentance to the acknowledging of the truth." (2 Timothy 2:25) The end.
 
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aiki

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Well, this set of remarks deflects rather than addresses the points I made about translation, wording, and cultural practices that bear upon the passage. "The Bible says what it means" is just a careless, superficial response to what has been pointed out concerning the passage. It ignores the original language in which the Bible comes to us; it ignores the viticultural practices of the time; it ignores the import of the wording of the verses themselves. Responding with "Surely not," doesn't even begin to wrestle with the things I explained. It certainly doesn't refute them.

If you want more than a milk-level understanding of God's word, you will have to dig into the languages out of which our English translations of Scripture come and into the cultural milieu in which they were written. Simply assuming that modern translations fully communicate all there is to know about what was intended in the original versions of our Bible (written, not in English, but in Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic) is to keep yourself forever on the surface of what Scripture means.


There is nothing in this verse about being fruitful in order to be saved. Nothing. Just the commendation of a faithful servant. You have to read into this verse the idea that it says one earns or maintains one's salvation by works. The verse itself says nothing about works-salvation.

”And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” (Matthew 25:30).

So, where's the bit about works-salvation, about "being fruitful in order to be saved"? Is the "unprofitable servant" a saved person who is losing his salvation by being unprofitable? Where is that stated in the verse or in the parable itself? Where is it even implied? No where. But this is what you often do: You throw out reams of verses that you claim prove your case without any explanation as to how they actually do so. And when I check through the verses you offer, I find - as I have in these two verses above - that they offer no ground at all for your thinking.

"Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone. Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.” (James 2:17-18).

As has been explained to you many times now, James did not mean that works save a person, only that they are the inevitable, natural result of a genuine saving faith. Good works complete - in a sense - one's saving faith. If you contend otherwise, if you contend that works do, in fact, save, then you put yourself - and the apostle James - in direct contradiction to both Jesus and Paul, both of whom exclude works as salvific (Ephesians 2:8-9; 1 Corinthians 1:8-9; Titus 3:5; John 3:5-6; John 3:15-16; John 3:36, etc.) Again, good works reflect, or reveal, or manifest saving faith, but they don't save anyone.

"They profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate." (Titus 1:16).

Who does? Saved people? No, Paul is not describing people who were once saved but because they are "abominable, disobedient and reprobate" have lost their salvation. He is speaking of people who reveal in the wretched way they are living that they are not - and have never been - genuinely born-again believers. They are "unruly and vain talkers and deceivers," Paul says, and he gives no hint that they are, or ever were, of the household of faith. How, then, does this verse show that being fruitful is necessary to being saved? This is not stated in the verse at all. The verse just describes some bad, hypocritical people. Paul says nothing about salvation and fruitfulness in the verse. So, here, again, you are reading into the verse what is not there.

Are we to assume all these other verses do not mean what they plainly say, too?

Surely not.

But, as you can see, what you think is "plain" in the verses and passages you have offered is actually no such thing. What is plain is the lens of false doctrine through which you are reading all of these verses and forcing into them that false doctrine. You are seeing what you want to see, not what is actually there.
 
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aiki

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Your entire post totally ignores the fact that words often have a variety of meanings. Consequently, your post is simply one long deflection of this fact.
 
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aiki

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I am sorry, but basic rules of grammar do not support you here.

Oh? Show how these "basic rules of grammar" don't support my explanations, then. Keep in mind that I used to teach High School grammar - among other subjects - and know English grammar very well. So, carry on. Show me how these "basic rules" defy my explanations.

You are inserting your own grammar fantasies into the text.

Well, show me that I have, then. Where are my "grammar fantasies," exactly?

Not one grammar teacher (who is not biased) would approve what you just wrote here. It's utter non-sense.

I'm a former grammar teacher. I approve what I wrote. The word "for" does exactly what I said it does. No grammar teacher (who is not biased) would disagree with me. Your "grammar objection" is sour grapes, I think, not an actual grammatical mistake on my part. Certainly, you haven't shown at all that "for" doesn't do what I said it does. You have simply asserted there is a problem without explaining what it is. You do this a great deal, you know.

A person can just change the meaning of the sentence around in Romans 8:13 using other things and see the falseness of what you are trying to propose.

Uh huh. I didn't change anything around. In my explanation of the purpose of "For," words remain where they are in the verses in question.


Stick to the verses themselves if you want to make a point about them. I'm not getting embroiled in discussing your false parallel here.

Verse 14 does not undo the first half of verse 13.

??? I never said it did.

A person is given a choice between two options in verse 13.

Two kinds of living and their consequences are described, yes.

Verse 14 is merely an extension of the latter half of verse 13.

Yes, but in what way? As I've said, the word "for" means that verse 14 gives the reason for, or is an explanation of, what is said in verse 13 (in particular, the last half which describes a person who is led of the Spirit).

The first half of verse 13 is not addressing an entirely different group of people here.

It is describing a particular kind of living that results in death. This fleshly living is in distinct contrast to living that, through the Spirit, "mortifies the deeds of the body" and results in life.

It's still talking to YOU the reader! For it uses the word "you" in there.

??? So? When have I indicated otherwise? And what does this have to do with what I wrote about the import of Romans 8:13-14? My point had nothing to do with the audience to Paul's words but with the fact that verse 14 explains the reason for the difference between the two kinds of living described in verse 13. A man who "mortifies the deeds of the body" does so because he is led of the Spirit (vs. 14), that is, he is saved. The contrast Paul offers to this kind of living is the fleshly living of one who is not led of the Spirit and thus is not saved. Paul, then, is describing the living of the lost and the saved; he is not teaching that one can lose one's salvation or that one's works are vital to making one saved. Show me where what I've explained here is wrong and not merely different from what you think.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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Yeah, I remember you saying that you used to teach High School grammar before. I said a person who is not BIASED and is a grammar teacher would not agree with the interpretation that you have made. Do you want to honestly check it with professionals?

Be my guest.

https://editmypaper.ca/

I know they will not agree with you (if they are not OSAS proponents).
 
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JIMINZ

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The whole of this Parable only pertains to those Jews of that Generation, spoken to by Jesus, the verses are about the Kingdom of Heaven (God)
Have nothing at all to do with Salvation, or the losing of it.

You don't quite get the concept, people can and do lose the Kingdom, but they cannot lose Salvation.

Maybe this will help you understand.

1) Explain what Salvation is, what we are Saved from.
2) Explain what the Kingdom of Heaven (God) is.

If you are able to explain them, you will be able to see they are not Synonymous.


Tell me truthfully, do you actually believe in a God who would come to earth suffer a Crucifixion for your soul, knowing all the while that you would walk away from that Salvation once received by you?....Really?
 
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BNR32FAN

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That would mean a nonbeliever can be in Christ and Christ is in that person. That’s not a nonbeliever. Just like the parable of the servant of the master. The servant is a believer and the master is God. That person is a servant of God otherwise they wouldn’t be a servant of the master if they didn’t believe. How can you be a servant if you don’t believe in the master?
 
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BNR32FAN

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Just a question, what is it in these verses, that brings you to the conclusion that this is a Parable?

Because we are not literally branches and Jesus is not literally a vine. It’s a metaphor.
 
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Oldmantook

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One must be a believer in the first place in order to ABIDE. It is impossible for an unbeliever to abide since he/she is not in Christ. From the moment of belief, a believer has the choice whether of not to remain attached to the vine. A believer can detach from the vine through no longer believing and/or habitual disobedience.
 
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JIMINZ

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1) From the moment of belief, a believer has the choice whether of not to remain attached to the vine.

2)A believer can detach from the vine through no longer believing and/or habitual disobedience.

1) You make it sound as though from the moment of your Salvation you have been looking for a way out of it.

2) If you read very carefully, you will see, there is no mention of a branch breaking or pruning itself off of the vine, no not at all, this is because, the husbandman is the one who does the pruning of the branches, and he prunes the ones that have produced fruit, that they would produce even more fruit, then He cuts off those unproductive branches and has them cast into the fire.

The branch can only abide in the vine until the husbandman either prunes it, or removes it.
 
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JIMINZ

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Because we are not literally branches and Jesus is not literally a vine. It’s a metaphor.

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With that as the criteria, is the Book of the Revelation also considered to be a Parable by you, because it is nothing but Metaphor?
 
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BNR32FAN

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I would add that it is impossible for a believer to abide also. No matter how hard we try or how often we succeed we will all ultimately fail.
 
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BNR32FAN

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With that as the criteria, is the Book of the Revelation also considered to be a Parable by you, because it is nothing but Metaphor?

Not necessarily there is much that is not a parable in revelation. Chapters 2&3 are just one example
 
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Butch5

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Yes, this passage refutes OSAS. There are quite a few of them. Osas is not a Biblical doctrine. It was rejected by the church and only became accepted by the Reformers when the Reformation came about. The Reformers were students of Augustine. It came from Gnostic thinking.
 
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Blood Bought 1953

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200 verses appear to say one can lose their salvation.....400 say you can’t......take your pick , but be aware that all the anti OSAS verses are either takeen out of context or are not addressing The Body of Christ
 
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