I read this from a Christian author. Does this make sense?
Jewish teachers have never regarded the observance of Jewish religious customs and laws as a way of gaining divine favor. A core Jewish conviction is that the very fact that they have the Torah at all is a sign of God’s unmerited favor toward them. Observing the law is a privilege — and also a very serious responsibility.
All that being said, how on earth could we conclude that the New Testament defines “works-righteousness” as a distinctively Jewish attitude? Why would the New Testament go to all the trouble of writing to Gentile congregations only to bash the Jews for attitudes they demonstratively don’t hold?
Why not conclude instead that “works-righteousness” is actually a distinctively Gentile attitude? And from that perspective, why not also conclude that the New Testament actually discourages Gentiles from adopting Jewish religious customs precisely because they will misunderstand them as ways to gain God’s favor?
Jewish teachers have never regarded the observance of Jewish religious customs and laws as a way of gaining divine favor. A core Jewish conviction is that the very fact that they have the Torah at all is a sign of God’s unmerited favor toward them. Observing the law is a privilege — and also a very serious responsibility.
All that being said, how on earth could we conclude that the New Testament defines “works-righteousness” as a distinctively Jewish attitude? Why would the New Testament go to all the trouble of writing to Gentile congregations only to bash the Jews for attitudes they demonstratively don’t hold?
Why not conclude instead that “works-righteousness” is actually a distinctively Gentile attitude? And from that perspective, why not also conclude that the New Testament actually discourages Gentiles from adopting Jewish religious customs precisely because they will misunderstand them as ways to gain God’s favor?
