Sure, show me 70ad in the Bible and I will get right on that.
There is also only a few verses pertaining to the destruction of the temple.
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Does The Third Temple...
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Sure, show me 70ad in the Bible and I will get right on that.
There is also only a few verses pertaining to the destruction of the temple.
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While the church as a whole is indeed a figurative temple building (Ephesians 2:21), note that it isn't the only temple of God. For it coexists with the literal temple building in heaven (Revelation 11:19), and with the temple of Jesus' individual human body (John 2:21), and with the temple of every Christian's individual human body (1 Corinthians 6:19). And if the church-as-a-whole temple can currently coexist with all these other temples of God, it will be able to coexist with the future, 3rd-earthly-literal temple building which Revelation 11:1-2, Matthew 24:15, Daniel 11:31,36, and 2 Thessalonians 2:4 show will exist in Jerusalem during the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24. This 3rd temple building will be accepted by God as a valid temple, just as the 2nd temple building was accepted by God as a valid temple, even at the time of Jesus' first coming (Matthew 23:21), and even at the time of the early church (Luke 24:53, Acts 2:46, Acts 22:17).
For the ultra-Orthodox Jews will build the 3rd temple, and they will offer animal sacrifices in front of it, under the auspices of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, which remains holy before God (Romans 7:12). That's why God still keeps an ark of the Old Covenant Mosaic law in his temple building in heaven (Revelation 11:19), and why it was possible for the apostle Paul one time to involve himself with the 2nd temple's Old Covenant Mosaic law practices without him committing sin (Acts 21:20-26; 1 Corinthians 9:20). This isn't to say the Jesus-denying motives of the ultra-Orthodox Jews will be holy before God, but that the Old-Covenant-Mosaic-law 3rd temple in itself and its animal sacrifices in themselves will be holy before God because the Old Covenant Mosaic law in itself remains holy before God (Romans 7:12), even though its letter is no longer meant to be practiced by people (Romans 7:6), because the New Covenant has been inaugurated by Jesus and his once-for-all-time sacrifice on the Cross for our sins (Hebrews 10:1-23, Matthew 26:28).
Note that there are at least 8 scriptural reasons to read the 1,000 years of Revelation 20:2-6 as not beginning until after Jesus' (never fulfilled) 2nd coming in Revelation 19:7-21.
First, this is in accord with how the rest of Revelation chapters 6 to 22 are in chronological order, insofar as the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 will begin with the events of the 2nd through 6th seals, occurring in the order shown in Revelation 6:3-14. After the events of the 6th seal, Revelation 7 will occur. Then the 7th seal will be unsealed and out of it will come the tribulation's 7 trumpets (Revelation 8:1-6). Then the events of the first 6 trumpets in Revelation 8:7 to Revelation 9:21 will occur in the order shown there. Then Revelation 10 will occur. Then the literal 3.5 years of the Antichrist's worldwide reign will occur, which time period is shown from 4 different angles in Revelation chapters 11 to 14 (Revelation 11:2b-3, Revelation 12:6,14, Revelation 13:5,7, Revelation 14:9-13).
Then the 7th trumpet will sound, announcing the legal end of the Antichrist's reign (Revelation 11:15). Out of the 7th trumpet's heavenly-temple opening will come the 7 plagues of the 7 vials (Revelation 11:19, Revelation 15:5 to 16:1), the tribulation's final stage. Then the events of the 7 vials will occur in the order shown in Revelation 16. Jesus will return right after the 7th vial (Revelation 16:17,19, Revelation 19:2-21) and he will marry the church at that time (Revelation 19:7). Then he will defeat the world's armies (Revelation 19:11 to 20:3) and reign on the earth with the bodily resurrected or changed church for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29; 1 Corinthians 15:51-53). Then the events of Revelation 20:7 to Revelation 22:5 will occur in the order shown there.
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Second, the 1,000 years in Revelation 20:2-6 is when Satan will be literally bound with a chain, and cast into and locked within the literal bottomless pit, whereas currently he is walking about freely on the earth seeking whom he may devour (1 Peter 5:8). So the 1,000 years can't have started yet. But their beginning after Jesus' 2nd coming makes perfect sense (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).
Third, during the 1,000 years, Satan won't be able to deceive the world (Revelation 20:3), whereas currently he is able to deceive the world (2 Corinthians 4:4; 2 Corinthians 11:3,14,15; 2 Thessalonians 2:9-10, Revelation 12:9, Revelation 13:14, Revelation 19:20, Revelation 20:10). So the 1,000 years can't have started yet.
Fourth, the defeat of Satan in Revelation 20:1-3 is in chronological accord with the immediately preceding defeat of the Antichrist (the individual man aspect of the beast), and the False Prophet, and the world's armies, at Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:19-21). Indeed, there is no chapter break between Revelation 19 and Revelation 20 in the original Greek manuscripts, so that Revelation 19:19 to 20:3 can be taken together as a unit, showing how every power of evil will be defeated at Jesus' 2nd coming.
Fifth, reading Revelation 20:4-6 as Jesus and the bodily resurrected church reigning first on the present (not the new) earth after his 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6) matches Jesus reigning first on the present (not the new) earth after his 2nd coming in Zechariah 14:3-21. For Zechariah 14:8-21 can't be referring to the new earth, because it refers to a temple building in Jerusalem (Zechariah 14:20-21), whereas there will be no temple building in New Jerusalem on the new earth (Revelation 21:22). Also, Zechariah 14:8-21 can't be referring to the new earth because it refers to surviving unsaved people from the present earth being forced to come up to worship the returned Jesus in Jerusalem during the millennium (Zechariah 14:16-19), whereas by the time of the new earth, all the unsaved people from the present earth will have already been cast into the lake of fire (Revelation 20:15 to 21:8).
Sixth, reading the first resurrection in Revelation 20:4-6 as the bodily resurrection of the church at Jesus' 2nd coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6) matches other verses which show that the bodily resurrection of the church will occur at Jesus' 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-54; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16).
Seventh, reading the first resurrection in Revelation 20:4-6 as the bodily resurrection of the church at Jesus' 2nd coming is in line with Revelation 20:5, which must refer in its entirety to only bodily resurrection. For not every dead person is going to be figuratively resurrected in the sense of becoming saved (Revelation 20:15). And Revelation 20:5 means that the rest of the dead (i.e. all the non-church dead of all times) will be resurrected in the same manner that the church will be resurrected in Revelation 20:4-6, but the rest of the dead won't be resurrected until sometime after the 1,000 years are over.
Eighth, reading the first resurrection in Revelation 20:4-6 as the bodily resurrection of the church at Jesus' 2nd coming is in line with Revelation 20:4, which shows that the people in the first resurrection will include those in the church who will have been beheaded by the Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of the beast) for not worshipping him or his image, or receiving his mark on their hand or forehead. This refers back to the details of Revelation 13:4-18, which have never been fulfilled. So the first resurrection can't have happened yet. But its occurring at Jesus' 2nd coming, when he will defeat the Antichrist, makes perfect sense (Revelation 19:20 to 20:6; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-9).
As God the Word, Jesus was the Creator of everything in heaven and earth (Colossians 1:16-18, John 1:1,3). And in the 1st century AD he became a flesh and bones human being (John 1:14; 2 John 1:7) so he could die on the Cross for our sins and rise from the dead on the 3rd day (Hebrews 2:16-17; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) and become our eternally-human high priest/mediator (Hebrews 7:24-26; 1 Timothy 2:5).
After his resurrection into immortality in his fully-human flesh and bones body (Luke 24:39), Jesus the man was given ultimate spiritual authority over heaven and earth (Matthew 28:18). He ascended bodily into heaven (Acts 1:9-10) and is now there ruling spiritually over everything (1 Peter 3:22, Ephesians 1:20-23, Colossians 2:10,15, Philippians 2:9).
But he won't take ultimate, de facto, physical authority over the earth until his 2nd coming, when, still as a flesh and bones human being (Zechariah 13:6, Zechariah 12:10-14), he will descend bodily from heaven (Revelation 19:11-21, Zechariah 14:3-4, Acts 1:11-12) to physically reign on the earth (Psalms 72:8-11, Zechariah 14:9-21) with a rod of iron with the bodily resurrected church for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 2, Psalms 66:3-4, Micah 4:1-4, Luke 1:32, Isaiah 9:6-7).
After his 1,000-year reign and subsequent events are over (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39), Jesus will resurrect and judge everyone who wasn't resurrected at his 2nd coming (Revelation 20:11-15). Everyone who has ever lived will have to bow down before him and admit he's Lord of everything (Philippians 2:10-11, Acts 10:36).
Matthew 23:38 refers to the spiritual desolation of Jerusalem (Matthew 23:37) insofar as it rejects Jesus (1 John 5:12b, cf. Galatians 4:25), whereas Matthew 23:39 refers to the future salvation of all the still-living unbelieving elect Jews in Jerusalem at Jesus' 2nd coming, when they will see him in person and believe in him (Zechariah 12:10-14, Romans 11:26-29).
Also, Matthew 23:38, like Matthew 27:51, didn't mean the 2nd Jewish temple in Jerusalem had become spiritually desolate. For it remained holy even after Jesus' death and resurrection. That's why the church continued to worship God there (Luke 24:53, Acts 2:46, Acts 22:17). What the rending of the veil in Matthew 27:51 pictured was the opening of the holiest place in heaven to Christians (Hebrews 10:19-22, Hebrews 9:24) by the abolishing of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's commandments (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-27, Hebrews 10:9b) and the establishment of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28) at the moment Jesus died on the Cross for our sins (Hebrews 9:15-17, Hebrews 10:19-20, Matthew 27:50-51).
The rending of the veil in Matthew 27:51 didn't mean God no longer dwelt in the 2nd temple (as in Matthew 23:21). That's why (again) the church continued to worship in the 2nd temple even after Jesus' death and resurrection (Luke 24:53, Acts 2:46, Acts 22:17).
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Even in preterism, there was a gap of decades between the first century AD fulfillment of Daniel 9:26a and the first century AD fulfillment of Daniel 9:26b. For first century AD Jerusalem wasn't destroyed until 70 AD, some decades after the Crucifixion. Also, there will be a gap of about 7 years between the future fulfillment of Daniel 9:26a and the future fulfillment of Daniel 9:26b. For the current Jerusalem won't be destroyed until right before and at Jesus' never-fulfilled 2nd coming (Zechariah 14:2-21), about 7 years after the Antichrist "cuts" a 7-year treaty (Daniel 9:26a,27a) with a future, ultra-Orthodox Jewish false "Messiah" (Daniel 9:26a, Daniel 11:22-23a) who will be ruling Jerusalem.
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Regarding the "abomination of desolation", Daniel 11:31 was typically fulfilled by the abomination of desolation in 1 Maccabees 1:54, which occurred in the holy place (the inner sanctum) of the 2nd Jewish temple in Jerusalem in the time of Antiochus IV. But per Jesus' statement in Matthew 24:15, the church will see the abomination of desolation in Daniel 11:31 fulfilled (antitypically) in the future, when the church will see the abomination of desolation "stand" "in" the holy place (of a 3rd Jewish temple in Jerusalem). This future abomination of desolation could be a standing, android image of the Antichrist (Revelation 13:15) which his followers ("they") will put in the holy place of the temple (Daniel 11:31) to be worshipped (Revelation 13:15), after they have stopped the daily Mosaic animal sacrifices which the ultra-Orthodox Jews will have restarted in front of the temple (Daniel 11:31). This image will "pollute" the holy place of the temple (Daniel 11:31).
The Antichrist will then fulfill Daniel 11:36 and 2 Thessalonians 2:4 by sitting himself (at least one time) in the temple and proclaiming himself God. By the power of Satan (the dragon, Revelation 12:9), the Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of Revelation's "beast") will then rule and be worshipped by all the nations of the earth for 3.5 literal years (Revelation 13:4-18), and will physically overcome Biblical Christians in every nation (Revelation 13:7-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 20:4-6, Matthew 24:9-13).
Also, from the day on which (antitypically) "the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be 1,290 days. Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the 1,335 days" (Daniel 12:11-12, Revelation 16:15). Also, because the Antichrist will fulfill Daniel 11:31 antitypically (Matthew 24:15) and will fulfill Daniel 11:36 for the first (and only) time, then he will also fulfill all of Daniel 11:21-45 (the first part of it antitypically, and the rest for the first and only time) when he arises on the world stage, for that passage refers to the career of the same man. And since the Antichrist will fulfill all of Daniel 11:21-45 when he arises on the world stage, then just preceding his arising on the world stage, Daniel 11:13-19 could be fulfilled antitypically by an Iraqi Baathist General completely defeating and occupying Israel and Egypt with a huge Iraqi Army (Daniel 11:15-17; in verse 17 the original Hebrew word translated as "daughter" is "bath").
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Yea it's been a while
Me thinks the Jews in power in Israel will self fulfill prophecy and a false messiah will come and built the temple spoken of in ezek and reinstate sacrifices and this temple will be destroyed
The real messiah will one day come and rebuilt the final temple for his millennial reign
So 4 total in human history .... 2 yet to come
Good to hear your voice again my friend,
Old Amillennialist nowist Jack hoping more Jews become "in Christ"
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Having saved responses don't make your point Bible2...you CANNOT find one passage that even hint's of returning to the Old Covenant temple or sacrifices...NOT ONE. Once again, if you read Hebrews it will be clear! Contriving scripture to make your point won't get it done. Hebrews deals with the Old and New Covenant and makes it very plain the Old Covenant is obsolete!
What I "note" is that the passages that say Jesus is reigning now...you don't deal with. So your "8 scriptural reasons" are not scriptural when one reads:
*Matthew 28:18
*1 Corinthians 15:20-28
*Ephesians 1:18-22
*Colossians 1:15-20
*Revelation 1:8
Think what you wish but How does Jesus call himself "Alpha and Omega" and not be reigning? It defies logic!
Well first off, I'm an amillennialist who agrees with *some* of partial preterism.
There is NO gap in Daniel's 70 weeks...it's created. Why do you think those who teach it have to contrive it?
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You say there is no gap, but the Jews have yet to fulfill Daniels 70th week.
If they did, they would have come to Christ already.
Prophecy is not bound by time, it happens when it happens, that's why Daniels prophecy is split up, 7 week, 62 weeks, and 1 week.
pray on it..
If they did, they would have come to Christ already.
Prophecy is not bound by time, it happens when it happens, that's why Daniels prophecy is split up, 7 week, 62 weeks, and 1 week.
pray on it..
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Yet even in your paradigm, only a remnant of them come to Christ, not ALL of them, So your point is moot. Jewish King Jesus and His Jewish followers Fulfilled Daniels 70th Week which began right after the 69th week ended.
Unless it is...
Genesis 7:1-4. There, God told Noah:
Enter the ark, you and all your household; for you alone I have seen to be righteous before Me in this time [generation]. You shall take with you of ever clean animal by sevens, a male and his female; and of the animals that are not clean two, a male and his female; also of the birds of the sky, by sevens, male and female, to keep offspring alive on the face of all the earth. For after seven more days, I will send rain on the earth forty days and forty nights; and I will blot our from the face of the land every living thing that I have made.
There are several things in this passage that should be noted. First, this is a prophecy of judgment. Secondly, God declared when the judgment, i.e., the rain, would start. Thirdly, He stated how long the rain would last. Fourthly, God spoke this to Noah, a man trapped in time. God was very specific as to when the rain would begin and to how long it would last. God told Noah that after seven days it would rain for forty days and nights. Now, our first question regarding this passage is not how we should interpret what God said, but how would Noah interpret what God said. Would he understand that God was outside time? That is to say, the references that God made concerning when the judgment would come were to be measured by how time relates to God? Applying the futurist’s interpretation of 2 Peter 3:8-9 to this passage, was God telling Noah that after 7,000 years it would begin to rain and once it started raining, it would continue for 40,000 years? Or should the plain, everyday definitions of the terms be understood? We find our answer in verse’s 10 and 12:
And it came about after the seven days, that the water of the flood came upon the earth¼ And the rain fell upon the earth for forty days and forty nights.
Here, just a few short verses later, we have the fulfillment of that prophecy. This shows us that God meant exactly what He said to Noah. Seven days equaled seven days. Forty days and nights equaled forty days and nights. This reference is of great importance so let’s keep it in mind for we will come back to it later, if the Lord wills.
Our next passage for examination is found in Exodus 9:1-5. There, it is written:
Then the Lord said to Moses, "Go to Pharaoh and speak to him, ‘Thus says the Lord, the God of the Hebrews, "Let My people go, that they may serve Me. For if you refuse to let them go, and continue to hold them, behold the hand of the Lord will come with a very severe pestilence on your livestock which are in the field, on the horses, on the donkeys, on the camels, on the herds, and on the flocks. But the Lord will make a distinction between the livestock of Israel and the livestock of Egypt, so that nothing will die of all that belongs to the sons of Israel." ’ " And the Lord set a definite time saying, "Tomorrow the Lord will do this thing in the land."
In this passage, God is more specific about when this plague would befall the Egyptians. The text stated that "The Lord set a definite time." It seems to indicate that God put an expiration date, if you please, on His mercy. When was that expiration date? The text states "Tomorrow." Here, again, is a prophecy concerning judgment. It contains a specific time statement: "Tomorrow." It was a prophecy given to a specific person in history. However, even though there are similar elements in this passage to the one before it, there is something different. Pharaoh. Pharaoh is different because he was a man outside the covenant of God. A Gentile. Now our question is, "How would Pharaoh, a non-covenant Gentile, understand the term ‘tomorrow?’ " Would he understand that it would be fulfilled the following day, or if we apply the futurist’s interpretation of 2 Peter 3, was Moses actually telling him that God would destroy all the livestock of the Egyptians around a thousand years from when this prophecy was given? Verse 6 gives us our answer. It reads:
So the Lord did this thing on the morrow, and all the livestock of Egypt died; but the livestock of the sons of Israel, not one died.
Once again we see that not only was the "how" part of the prophecy fulfilled (the death of the Egyptian livestock), but the "when" part of it was fulfilled as well (they all died the following day). God declared that He would kill all the livestock of the Egyptians on the following day, and He did just that.
For our next passage, let’s look at Exodus 11:4-5. There it is written:
And Moses said, "Thus says the Lord, ‘About midnight I am going out into the midst of Egypt, and all the first-born in the land of Egypt shall die, from the first-born of the Pharaoh who sits on his throne, even to the first-born of the slave girl who is behind the millstones; all the first-born of the cattle as well."
In these verse’s we have the same elements as the previous examples. 1) This was a prophecy of judgment. 2) It was given to a man trapped in time. 3) It had a specific time statement concerning it’s fulfillment. In this passage God is even more specific as to when this prophecy would be fulfilled. He said that He would kill all the firstborn of Egypt "about midnight." But let’s use 2 Peter 3 again and see if this is the right way to interpret prophetic time. Now if Moses gave this prophecy around 6:00 a.m., was he stating that God would kill the firstborn of Egypt about 750 years later?
Well, let’s see. In chapter 12 and verse 29, it is written:
Now it came to about at midnight that the Lord struck all the first-born in the land of Egypt
Once again, God gave a specific time statement when judgment would fall, and He fulfilled it when He said He would.
Our last examples will be a series of passages relating to the same prophetic event: the Babylonian captivity.
Jeremiah 25:11. And this whole land shall be a desolation and a horror, and these nations shall serve the king of Babylon seventy years.
Jeremiah 29:10. For thus says the Lord, "When seventy years have been completed for Babylon, I will visit you and fulfill My good word to you, to bring you back to this place."
2 Chronicles 36:20-21. And those who escaped from the sword he carried away to Babylon, and they were servants to him and to his sons until the rule of the kingdom of Persia, to fulfill the word of the Lord by the mouth of Jeremiah, until the land had enjoyed its sabbaths. All the days of its desolation it kept sabbath until seventy years were complete.
Once again we have the same elements in these passages as we had in the preceding ones. 1) This was a prophecy of judgment. 2) It was given to men trapped in time. 3) It had a specific time statement concerning it’s fulfillment. God spoke through Jeremiah to the nation of Israel that they would be in bondage for seventy years. Now if the futurist’s interpretation of 2 Peter 3:8-9 is applied to these passages, then the nation of Israel would be in bondage approximately 25,550,000 years! But is this an accurate interpretation? Daniel didn’t think so. For in Daniel 9:1-2, it is written:
In the first year of Darius the son of Ahasureus, of Median descent, who was made king over the kingdom of the Chaldeans¾ in the first year of his reign I, Daniel, observed in the books the number of the years which was revealed as the word of the Lord to Jeremiah the prophet for the completion of the desolations of Jerusalem, namely, seventy years.
The King James Version states that Daniel "understood the number of years." What interpretive hermeneutic did Daniel use to understand the number of years? the futurist’s interpretation of 2 Peter 3:8-9, or the plain meaning of the phrase "seventy years?" Obviously, the plain, everyday meaning of the phrase. This alone should answer any question and settle any debate as to how to properly interpret the time statements of Biblical prophecy. However, as if this alone wasn’t enough, God gave us another proof: history. In 2 Chronicles 36:20-21, God said that the nation of Israel would be in bondage "until the reign of the kingdom of Persian." History teaches us that Persia came into power in 536 BC at the over throw of the Babylonian Empire. History also teaches us that Israel was in bondage to Babylon from 606 BC until their over throw by Persia in 536 BC. That equates to exactly seventy years.
To recap, we have gone from "seventy years," to "forty days and nights," to "seven days," to "tomorrow," to "midnight," and in each case, God fulfilled His word exactly WHEN He said He would.
Lastly, let’s look at a passage that has tremendous relevance to the subject at hand. In Ezekiel 12:21-28, it is written:
Then the word of the Lord came to me saying, "Son of man, what is this proverb you people have concerning the land of Israel, saying, ‘The days are long and every vision fails?’ Therefore say to them, ‘Thus says the Lord God, "I will make this proverb cease so that they will no longer use it as a proverb in Israel." But tell them, "The days a draw near as well as the fulfillment of every vision. For there will no longer be any false vision or flattering divination within the house of Israel. For I the Lord shall speak, and whatever word I speak will be performed. It will no longer be delayed, for in you days, O rebellious house, I shall speak the word and perform it," declares the Lord God.’ " Furthermore, the word of the Lord came to me saying, "Son of man, behold, the house of Israel is saying, ‘The vision that he sees is for many years from now, and he prophesies of times far off.’ Therefore say to them, ‘Thus says the Lord God, "None of My words will be delayed any longer. Whatever word I speak will be performed," ’ " declares the Lord God.
In this passage the nation of Israel said that the time statements of God’s word were irrelevant. This is exactly what the futurist claims about the time statements concerning the return of Christ in the first century. They say, just like Israel, "Those passages were not for the original audience but were ‘for many years from now’ and for ‘times far off.’ " But notice what God thinks about that kind of hermeneutic. God said, "None of My words will be delayed any longer. Whatever word I speak will be performed." He stated that He would say the word and He would perform it. Again, notice the implication of that statement. God Himself fulfills His word. When we try and mis-use 2 Peter 3:8-9 as a formula to interpret prophetic time, i.e., that the imminent time statements in the New Testament concerning Christ’s return in the first century are really "for many years from now," i.e., our time, we are saying that God will not fulfill His word! So the real issue here is not just differences of interpretation concerning eschatology, but the nature and character of God. If the futurist is correct in his interpretation and application of 2 Peter 3 (and I hope that we have proved that he is not), then God is made out to be a liar because He will not fulfill His word when He said He would. Plain and simple. If the futurist is correct, then we might as well be atheists because God Himself cannot even be trusted, and then we are lost. Why? Because, if God is dishonest concerning when He would fulfill His word, how do we know He was honest concerning the doctrines of Grace? Or anything else for that matter? It’s simple. We don’t. So, again, this is much more than just a difference of interpretation. Our salvation depends on God keeping every aspect of His word. Including when He was to fulfill it.
So, what can we conclude from this foundational examination of prophetic time statements? We can conclude at least three things:
1. By letting scripture interpret Scripture, we can see that when God gives a time statement regarding when prophecy would be fulfilled, unless instructed otherwise, the plain meaning of the terms should be used.
2. By using historical documentation we can see that prophecies were fulfilled exactly when God said they would be.
3. That God Himself fulfills His word. And if He doesn’t fulfill it when He said He would, then "we are of all men most miserable."
Therefore, we have a historical, and more importantly, a Biblical interpretation of the time statements of prophecy. Unless otherwise stated, God intended the time statements of prophecy to be interpreted in their plain, everyday meaning. God is faithful to His word. He will fulfill it when He said He would.
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You are saying Daniels 70th week ran consecutive to Christ's death, but then you say the abomination happens at 66ad..
it's impossible for there not to be a gap between Christ's death and the 70th week of Daniels prophecy which Christ references himself.
There is a major flaw in your theory.
As usual.
it's impossible for there not to be a gap between Christ's death and the 70th week of Daniels prophecy which Christ references himself.
There is a major flaw in your theory.
As usual.
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Note that Christ didn't return in the 1st century, nor did any scripture require that he do so.
Instead, scripture makes clear that Jesus will return "in like manner" as he ascended (Acts 1:11b), in that just as at the end of his 1st coming he was seen by literal eyes to ascend physically from the Mount of Olives into a literal cloud and on into heaven (Acts 1:9,12, cf. Luke 24:39), so at his 2nd coming he will be seen in literal clouds by literal eyes (Revelation 1:7, Matthew 24:30) to physically descend from heaven (1 Thessalonians 4:16) and set his feet on the Mount of Olives (Zechariah 14:3-21).
When Jesus returns, immediately after the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Revelation 19:7-21, Matthew 24:29-31), he will descend bodily from heaven on a white horse (Revelation 19:7-21; 1 Thessalonians 4:16, Zechariah 14:3-4, Acts 1:11-12) with all the holy angels (Matthew 25:31; 2 Thessalonians 1:7) for all the world to see (Matthew 24:27,30, Revelation 1:7). Then the church will be bodily resurrected (if dead) or changed (if alive) into immortality (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:16, Revelation 20:4-6) and caught up together/gathered together (raptured) (Matthew 24:31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1) as high as the clouds of the sky to hold a meeting in the air with Jesus (1 Thessalonians 4:17).
At that meeting, Jesus will judge the church (Psalms 50:3-5, cf. Mark 13:27; 2 Corinthians 5:10, Luke 12:45-48) and marry its obedient part (Revelation 19:7-8, Matthew 25:1-12) in the clouds, before it mounts white horses and comes back down from sky (the first heaven) with Jesus (Revelation 19:14) as he defeats the world's armies (Revelation 19:19,21) and the Antichrist and False Prophet (Revelation 19:20), and has Lucifer (Satan) bound in the bottomless pit for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:1-3).
Jesus will then make the marriage supper of Revelation 19:9 for the obedient part of the church in the earthly Jerusalem (Isaiah 25:6-9; 1 Corinthians 15:54), while the birds will feast on the corpses of the world's defeated armies (Revelation 19:17-18). Then Jesus and the obedient part of the church will rule the surviving nations with a rod of iron for the full 1,000 years of the millennium (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 2). After the 1,000 years are over, Lucifer will be released from the bottomless pit and bring about the Gog/Magog rebellion, only to be defeated for the last time (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39).
At least 7 years after that defeat (Ezekiel 39:9b), the great white throne judgment will occur, in which all those who hadn't been resurrected and judged at Jesus' return will be resurrected and judged (Revelation 20:11-15). Then God will create a new heaven (a new first heaven: a new sky/atmosphere for the earth) and a new earth (a new surface for the earth) (Revelation 21:1; 2 Peter 3:10b,13). Then God the Father will descend from the 3rd heaven in the literal city of New Jerusalem (Revelation 21:2), the Father's house (John 14:2, Revelation 21:3), and he will dwell on the earth with Jesus and the church (Revelation 21:3).
In one area outside the walls of New Jerusalem on the new earth will be the lake of fire (Revelation 22:15, Revelation 21:8) in which all of unsaved humanity will be punished forever in fire and brimstone with Lucifer and his fallen angels (Revelation 20:10,15, Matthew 25:41,46).
Regarding using the plain meaning of temporal terms in prophecy, the 42 months, 1,260 days, and "a time, and times, and half a time", are all the same time period in the prophecies of Revelation 13:5, Revelation 11:2-3, Revelation 12:6,14, Daniel 7:25, and Daniel 12:7. They will be 1,260 literal days, just as, for example, the 3 days in the fulfilled prophecies of Luke 9:22 and Luke 18:33 were literal days, and the 3 days in the fulfilled prophecies of Genesis 40:13 and Genesis 40:19 were literal days, and the 70 years in the fulfilled prophecy of Jeremiah 25:11-12 (Daniel 9:2) were literal years (Zechariah 7:5).
The literal 1,260-day time period will be the time of the Antichrist's Luciferian/Satanic worldwide reign of terror (Revelation 13:4-18, Revelation 12:9), which time period is shown from 4 different angles in Revelation chapters 11 to 14 (Revelation 11:2b-3, Revelation 12:6,14, Revelation 13:5,7, Revelation 14:9-13). The myriad details of these chapters have never been fulfilled, not even during a past time period of 1,260 years, as historicism mistakenly claims. But these details must be fulfilled (Revelation 1:1). So they will be fulfilled in our future, after the also-never-fulfilled details of Revelation chapters 6 to 10 are fulfilled in our future.
Note that there's no historical documentation of Revelation chapters 6 to 22 being fulfilled in the 1st century AD, nor did any scripture require that they be. For in Revelation 1:1,3 and Revelation 22:6,10, "shortly" and "at hand" can be understood in the same manner as "Surely I come quickly" in Revelation 22:20, which refers to Jesus' still-unfulfilled 2nd coming. I.e., shortly/at hand/quickly in these verses can be understood from the viewpoint of God, not men (2 Peter 3:8-9).
Also, from the viewpoint of men, part of what Revelation chapters 2-3 foretold could have begun unfolding "shortly" (Revelation 1:1,3) after John saw his Revelation vision. For the letters to the 7 literal, 1st century AD local church congregations (Revelation chapters 2-3) in 7 cities in the Roman province of "Asia" (Revelation 1:11b) could have foretold a 1st century persecution (Revelation 2:10, Revelation 3:10) under the Roman Emperor Domitian which happened shortly after John saw his vision around 95 AD, near the end of Domitian's reign (Irenaeus, Against Heresies 5:30:3c). But even all the (to us) still-future events of the tribulation and subsequent 2nd coming of Revelation chapters 6 to 19 will unfold "shortly" (Revelation 1:1,3) or "quickly" (Revelation 22:20) after John saw his vision. For from the viewpoint of God, even the passing of some 2,000 years is like the passing of only 2 days (2 Peter 3:8). Christians should look at the future fulfillment of Revelation chapters 6 to 19 (and Matthew 24) from the viewpoint of God, not men, for whom the passing of some 2,000 years seems like a long delay for its fulfillment (2 Peter 3:9).
1 Corinthians 15:19 means if the only hope of Christians is in this mortal life, they are (or should be) of all people most miserable. For they aren't (or shouldn't be) living for this mortal life and its pleasures (John 12:25; 1 John 2:15-17), but are (or should be) denying themselves, taking up their crosses every day, and following Jesus (Luke 9:23-25; 2 Corinthians 5:15), looking to that which is eternal (2 Corinthians 4:18).
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So you agree that Sin will exist forever, on the New Earth, in the Lake of Fire.
However, Revelation 3:3 REQUIRES a First century Fulfillment of the Thief's Coming.
And Again, Revelation 3:3 REQUIRES that the Thief's coming was to befall those first century Christians at Sardis, Likewise, Revelation 2:18-26 REQUIRES the The Thief's coming befall those 1st century Christians at Thyatira, Killing Jezebel and her Children and throwing those that fornicated with her and refused to repent, into the GREAT TRIBULATION..
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Revelation 3:3 was addressed to the literal, 1st century AD local church congregation in the city of Sardis (Revelation 3:1) in the Roman province of "Asia" (Revelation 1:11) regarding Jesus visiting that congregation spiritually (not physically) in judgment if it didn't repent. Compare 1 Corinthians 5:3, where the apostle Paul said he'd judged someone in a congregation by his spiritual presence despite his being absent from that congregation physically. Revelation 2:5 and Revelation 2:16 can be understood in this same spiritual sense with regard to the literal, local church congregations in Ephesus and Pergamos.
Regarding Revelation 2:25, it didn't require Jesus would ever actually come physically before the 1st-century AD members of the literal, local church congregation in Thyatira died off, just as, for example, Matthew 5:18 didn't require heaven and earth had to pass away before Jesus abolished the letter of the Old Covenant law, which he did on the Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6). Also, the 1st century AD city of Thyatira still exists today as a thriving city in Turkey, where Christians still live. So Revelation 2:25 can include an encouragement to Christians living in that city still today to keep the faith until Jesus' physical, 2nd coming, whether or not they die before it actually happens.
Also, Revelation 2:22's original Greek doesn't refer to "the" great tribulation, as in the tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24, for the myriad details of that tribulation have never been fulfilled.
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Scripture does not teach that there are multiple comings of Christ "as a thief", it only teaches one.
And do I have it correct that you assert the one and only Coming of Christ "as a thief" is spiritual and not physical, and happened in the 1st Century?
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2Pe 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up.
For contrast..
Zec 14:4 In that day His feet will stand on the Mount of Olives, which is in front of Jerusalem on the east; and the Mount of Olives will be split in its middle from east to west by a very large valley, so that half of the mountain will move toward the north and the other half toward the south.
Act 1:11 They also said, "Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into the sky? This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in just the same way as you have watched Him go into heaven."
Rev_19:11 And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.
1Th 4:16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first.
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Agreeing to disagree again regarding the Contextual interpretation, and not the non-inspired Text this time.
Zech.14:4 In vs. 4 & 5 we have first of all what a description of what our Lord will do to save the remnant of His people. He appears upon the Mt. of Olives, and His feet touch the mountain it splits in half, so that a large valley is formed.
The splitting of the mountain is the effect of the earthquake of course under the footsteps of YHWH, before whom the earth even trembles when He touches it. My end point agreeing to disagree:
The more precise definition of the situation of the Mt. of Olives, viz. "before Jerusalem eastwards," is not introduced with a geographical purpose - namely, to distinguish it from other mountains upon which olive trees grow - but is connected with the means employed by our Lord for the salvation of His people, for whom He opens a way of escape by splitting the mountain in two. <Summarized from 17th century Lutheran German works - in English by Mr. M. Loy, however unable to dig up at this moment>
A disclaimer as I'm not too well liked by many, ie, a litotes.
Will do you a favor, letting the rest go for now.
Old Jack's back
However no teeth brush, old age thing 
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Agreeing to disagree again regarding the Contextual interpretation, and not the non-inspired Text this time.
Zech.14:4 In vs. 4 & 5 we have first of all what a description of what our Lord will do to save the remnant of His people. He appears upon the Mt. of Olives, and His feet touch the mountain it splits in half, so that a large valley is formed.
The splitting of the mountain is the effect of the earthquake of course under the footsteps of YHWH, before whom the earth even trembles when He touches it. My end point agreeing to disagree:
The more precise definition of the situation of the Mt. of Olives, viz. "before Jerusalem eastwards," is not introduced with a geographical purpose - namely, to distinguish it from other mountains upon which olive trees grow - but is connected with the means employed by our Lord for the salvation of His people, for whom He opens a way of escape by splitting the mountain in two. <Summarized from 17th century Lutheran German works - in English by Mr. M. Loy, however unable to dig up at this moment>
A disclaimer as I'm not too well liked by many, ie, a litotes.
Will do you a favor, letting the rest go for now.
Old Jack's back
First of all, I only posted scripture for contrast.
How you've come to any conclusion about my understanding of those verses is beyond me, I never gave an opinion..
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For contrast..
Revelation 3:3
3 Remember therefore how you have received and heard; hold fast and repent. Therefore if you will not watch, I will come upon you as a thief, and you will not know what hour I will come upon you.
Matt 24: 43-44
43 But know this, that if the master of the house had known what hour the thief would come, he would have watched and not allowed his house to be broken into. 44 Therefore you also be ready, for the Son of Man is coming at an hour you do not expect.
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