Originally Posted by - DRA -
Sorry, disagree. Baptism in water was commanded by the authority of the Lord in Acts 2:38 and Acts 10:47-48.
Well, let's consider the passages. Here they are from the NKJV ...
Acts 2:38 - Then Peter said to them, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
The passage is a direct statement or command. Two things are commanded to receive the blessings promised: repentance and baptism in the name of Jesus Christ (which is synonymous with the baptism in the name of the Lord in Acts 10:47-48). Let's see how the Jews understood this statement. Three thousand obeyed what they were told in verse 41 and received the blessings promised. Let's be fair with the text. Do you think they were making assumptions, or were they simply obeying what they were told to do to have their sins remitted (i.e., taken away)?
Acts 10:47-48 - "Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?" 48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then they asked him to stay a few days.
"He [Peter] commanded them to be baptized" isn't an assumption. It's specifically stated that baptism was commanded. And, in the context, it's crystal clear that baptism in water is under consideration.
Acts 8 comes after Acts 2, right? Sure it does. So, let's see what we find in that chapter ...
Acts 8:35-39
35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and beginning at this Scripture, preached Jesus to him.
36 Now as they went down the road, they came to some water. And the eunuch said, "See, here is water. What hinders me from being baptized?"
37 Then Philip said, "If you believe with all your heart, you may." And he answered and said, "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."
38 So he commanded the chariot to stand still. And both Philip and the eunuch went down into the water, and he baptized him.
39 Now when they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught Philip away, so that the eunuch saw him no more; and he went on his way rejoicing.
Plus, there's Acts 10:47-48. It's posted above. And, it came after Acts 2, also. So, obviously your point needs some more study/diligence (2 Timothy 2:15).
First, baptism in the name of Jesus Christ is synonymous with baptism in the name of the Lord. And, the baptism in the name of the Lord is clearly identified as being in water in Acts 10:47-48. Perhaps if you had not stopped with Acts 10:46 you might have noticed what the next two verses say (once again, they are posted above). So, although water isn't specifically stated in Acts 2:38, there is indeed a scriptural basis for understanding that baptism in water was being commanded. Obviously, it was something the Jews could obey, because 3,000 did.
Second, you might also want to consider 1 Peter 3:20-21 (which Peter wrote) ...
20 who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water.
21 There is also an antitype which now saves us--baptism (not the removal of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God), through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,
I'll let you study on this type/antitype relationship between how the waters of the ark saving Noah's family are comparable to how baptism (in water according to the analogy) saves us today under the gospel of Christ. See that part about baptism being the answer of a good conscience? That means a person's conscience was bad/guilty before baptism. Why? Because they hadn't received the remission of sins yet according to Acts 2:38, or didn't have their sins washed away per Acts 22:16. Give it some thought. The truth harmonizes between Scripture if you let it. Let it. It's the right thing to do.
Let's think back to Acts 2. Peter, under direct guidance of the Holy Spirit, used Psalm 16, 2 Samuel 7 & Psalm 132, and Psalm 110 as the basis for declaring Jesus to both Lord and Christ in verse 36. In response (verse 37), some of the Jews were convicted of their sins - specifically of having their Messiah/Christ killed. They asked what they should do. That is evidence they now believed in Jesus. Therefore, Peter, still under the direct guidance of the Spirit, told them they were already saved in verse 38, right? Wrong! Rather, he told them what to do to have their sins taken away. That's means they weren't saved at that point. However, once they obeyed what they were told to do in verse 41 (i.e., repent and be baptized), they were saved and added to the Lord's church (His called out people) in verse 47. That's how the inspired story goes. Give it some thought.
As for Jesus, He was baptized with John's baptism, which according to Matthew 3, was a baptism of repentance preached to the Jews for them to prepare for the coming Messiah/Christ. Jesus was baptized to "fulfill all righteousness." He had no sins to repent of. And, He was the coming Messiah/Christ, so there was no need for Him to prepare for His coming. On the other hand, folks today have a real need to be united with the Lord's death, burial, and resurrection to die to sins, be freed from them, and become alive to God. I encourage you to read Romans 6 and consider the blessings that occur during baptism. Make no assumptions. Just read the inspired word and see what it tells you.
