You never asked me about how I would put it. That is also how I would put it.... Now that we have clarified 'proper terminology', care to engage now?
I answered your above concern, in post #38, and even referenced you.
And we are already aware of [your] terminology:
Post #29:
"If you disagree with the righteousness of God’s commands then you are in the wrong in some way. You’re either misinformed, misunderstanding, or perhaps simply morally corrupt. There could be no truly sound reasoning against God’s commands because they are most reasonable and wise."
I asked a follow up question. One for which you completely ignored. Though this is your right, I find this rather poor 'apologetics', if the the apologisti here is to defend their faith - which you look to do only when it is convenient.
I would like to discuss post #29. I will ask you again, using differing 'terminology'.
Why should we trust what is asserted in the Bible, verses any other opposing book of claims, which also makes the same claims to exclusivity about 'god'?