Does Lucifer Have Free Will?

klutedavid

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If so, demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer in disguise.
The scripture teaches that the Pharisees viewed Jesus as using Beelzebub as the source of his power. In effect, Jesus was the devil to some extent personified according to the Pharisees.
Along with 'original sin', demonstrate that the Devil did not simply orchestrate yet another point of deception, by getting millions/billions to break the very top commandments, (by worshiping a false god).
The only God visible in all the scripture was Jesus. If you check the visions of Jesus in the Old Testament they are of a man sitting on a throne. So worshiping Jesus cannot be idolatry because there was no other known God in the scripture. If you have seen Jesus then you have seen the Father, e.t.c.
It would appear the Devil has the ability to change form. It would appear the Devil has the ability to tempt humans. It would also appear the Devil has special powers, as the Devil appears able to tempt more than one individual at a time - (omnipresence).
Probably correct in that the devil is not a material creature, omnipresence though is an unlikely attribute. Since the devil is not bound by natural law, then the devil is not as restricted as we are. The attribute of omnipresence applied to an entity is defined as an attribute of God.
If one states that God places limits on the Devil's capabilities, this would appear to negate the 'free will' argument.
Who said anyone has a free will, a truly free will is a will not in anyway affected by any external influence. This is not the case for mankind because all our decisions are strongly influenced by external factors. Nearly all knowledge has axioms and assumptions because we don't really know, so if we don't really know anything. How could we possibly make perfect decisions and exert our will?
So, does the Devil have the ability to impersonate God? If so, then please explain above.
Paul in the letter to the Thessalonians claims that the devil will sit as God in the temple. So yes, the devil can impersonate God.
Such as, if God places limits to Satan, then why does God allow what God does allow Satan to perform, which causes many to reside in hell?
No one is in hell because they were ultimately deceived by the devil. People will reside in hell because they rejected the first cause of life itself. They rejected divine love in human form, Jesus the messiah, they rejected that which cannot possibly be rejected. Those in hell are those that resisted pure divine love in the extreme.
The point of this thread is to essentially turn the tables a bit, Shake things up, if you will.... Meaning, the skeptic is shifting the burden of proof the other way. The skeptic makes the assertion, and it is now up to the theist to 'disprove' the assertion.

This should be fun :)
In the beginning skeptics did not exist, in the end skeptics do not exist. Being a skeptic is a temporary affliction.
 
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klutedavid

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Provided you skip right over verses Matthew 5:17-22 ;)
Jesus was talking to the Jews about their law.

Jesus was not addressing the Gentiles in your quote (Matthew 5:17-22), because the Gentiles were not under the law.

Pass the seafood please I'm hungry.
 
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cvanwey

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Jesus was talking to the Jews about their law.

Jesus was not addressing the Gentiles in your quote (Matthew 5:17-22), because the Gentiles were not under the law.

Pass the seafood please I'm hungry.

I understand the the on-going debate between 'covenant' based beliefs verses 'dispensational' based beliefs.

It would not matter if Jesus was speaking to the Rastafarians. Many read verse 18, and interpret as none of the laws passing, as it states heaven is forever; such as the laws. I also recognize (you) read it as, once Jesus fulfilled prophecy, no one is confined by such laws any longer.

But I then ask, what about the ten commandments? Are those still binding?

However, squabbling over this minor point nowhere gets us to the scope of my OP, in which I will soon address in your other posting. I.E. Lucifer impersonates others to get people to worship the incorrect entity :)

Oh, and no butter needed for my lobster tail :)
 
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cvanwey

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The scripture teaches that the Pharisees viewed Jesus as using Beelzebub as the source of his power. In effect, Jesus was the devil to some extent personified according to the Pharisees.

No, Jesus really was Lucifer, and the Pharisees were somewhat correct all along.

The only God visible in all the scripture was Jesus. If you check the visions of Jesus in the Old Testament they are of a man sitting on a throne. So worshiping Jesus cannot be idolatry because there was no other known God in the scripture. If you have seen Jesus then you have seen the Father, e.t.c.

The OT is vague, at best. Furthermore, if Lucifer has the ability to change form, perform tricks, impersonate others, and lie, the only way Lucifer could be stopped, is if Yahweh directly prevented him from doing so. And if this was the case, then why wouldn't God just also prevent Lucifer from allowing the many other apparent 'atrocities' God would seem to allow Satan to inflict upon human kind? Hence, the questionability to Lucifer's allowances, or 'free will.'


Probably correct in that the devil is not a material creature, omnipresence though is an unlikely attribute. Since the devil is not bound by natural law, then the devil is not as restricted as we are. The attribute of omnipresence applied to an entity is defined as an attribute of God.

If the devil cannot be in more than one place at a time, this would mean there would need to exist billions of demons, doing Satan's dirty work, to continue to temp humans perpetually. However, I've met many whom claim they are being tempted by the devil daily. And since anecdotal testimony seems to be such a heavily relied upon tool, for the Bible, and belief in general, many such claims must be accurate :)

Which then begs the next question... Is the devil actually able to tempt more than one person at a time? Or, are most humans mistaken about being contacted by the actual devil? How would you know?


Who said anyone has a free will, a truly free will is a will not in anyway affected by any external influence. This is not the case for mankind because all our decisions are strongly influenced by external factors. Nearly all knowledge has axioms and assumptions because we don't really know, so if we don't really know anything. How could we possibly make perfect decisions and exert our will?

This, in no way, addressed my very specific observation. I'm not speaking about mere humans. 'If one states that God places limits on the Devil's capabilities, this would appear to negate the 'free will' argument.'

It would appear the devil has the tools to impersonate a prophet/messiah/other, 'Jesus', 'Muhammad', other... If the devil was declined, or blocked from this attempt, why then does God continue to allow Satan to 'reek all other kinds of havoc' upon humans?

Paul in the letter to the Thessalonians claims that the devil will sit as God in the temple. So yes, the devil can impersonate God.

Saul was tricked by Satan, simple....

Paul's vision in the desert was inflicted by Satan; unless Yahweh would not allow this to happen either. Which then again begs the question, why would God still allow the countless other apparent 'atrocities' humans claim Satan has a hand upon? Makes little sense really.


No one is in hell because they were ultimately deceived by the devil. People will reside in hell because they rejected the first cause of life itself. They rejected divine love in human form, Jesus the messiah, they rejected that which cannot possibly be rejected. Those in hell are those that resisted pure divine love in the extreme.

Under the claimed new covenant, the only way to heaven is through belief in Jesus, and also repenting to Jesus. And since Jesus is Lucifer, the first few commandments are clearly violated; unless Jesus was not speaking to the Gentiles about this too :)


In the beginning skeptics did not exist, in the end skeptics do not exist. Being a skeptic is a temporary affliction.

Being a skeptic at natural death results in hell, if the NT is true.
 
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Eloy Craft

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Awesome question. I ask a similar one to theists all the time. You tell me? Can you even distinguish voices from your own consciousness, verses from God, from Satan, and/or from any other? All-the-while, acknowledging that humans possess fallible traits and senses.

In your case, I state you cannot. Hence, the topic.
Conscience is intrinsic and universal in that everyone3 knows certain acts are evil and certain acts are good. The rest is a matter of authority presented to us in life that we accept or reject. It will impose guilt or praise relative to it's formation.

spiritual experiences otoh are difficult to discern and people more often than not get them wrong without external help

the evil spirit can imitate the spiritual states that the Holy Spirit gives. The difference being in intensity and ultimate end. The evil spirit offers an intense but superficial experience with no benefit to the soul in the end. It is like a drop of water on a stone. Big splash but no water permeates, no change. The Holy Spirit acts like a drop of water on a sponge. No splash but the water permeates and offers sanctity to the soul. A permanent change.



My previous posts describe how God's interventions are distinguishable from the evil or human experience.
 
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TLK Valentine

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Well, it may be that you yourself fall into the category of modifying your position a bit on the omnipotent/omniscient front, but haven't really thought about it too deeply. For example: Does omnipotence mean to you that:

1. God can create a square triangle?
2. God can smarfle a wigglin?
3. God can create a rock so heavy that he cannot lift it?
4. God can create a married bachelor?

In the absolutist sense, an omnipotent god should be able to adequately perform any of these tasks. But realistically, a modification to the definition of omnipotence seems to be required to make any kind of sense.

Would you agree?

I think the definition of "omnipotence" would necessarily have to be "the ability to do anything that can possibly be done." The four examples are of things that cannot exist in this universe due to how we have chosen to define it.
 
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the iconoclast

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Provided you skip right over verses Matthew 5:17-22 ;)

Hey hey you :)

By "the law" is meant the moral law, as appears from the whole discourse following: this he came not to "destroy", or loose men's obligations to, as a rule of walk and conversation, but "to fulfil" it; which he did doctrinally, by setting it forth fully, and giving the true sense and meaning of it; and practically, by yielding perfect obedience to all its commands, whereby he became "the end", the fulfilling end of it.

By "the prophets" are meant the writings of the prophets, in which they illustrated and explained the law of Moses; urged the duties of it; encouraged men thereunto by promises; and directed the people to the Messiah, and to an expectation of the blessings of grace by him: all which explanations, promises, and prophecies, were so far from being made void by Christ, that they receive their full accomplishment in him.

The Jews F20 pretend that these words of Christ are contrary to the religion and faith of his followers, who assert, that the law of Moses is abolished; which is easily refuted, by observing the exact agreement between Christ and the Apostle Paul, ( Romans 3:31 ) ( 10:4 ) and whenever he, or any other of the apostles, speaks of the abrogation of the law, it is to be understood of the ceremonial law, which in course ceased by being fulfilled; or if of the moral law, not of the matter, but of the ministry of it.

This passage of Christ is cited in the Talmud F21, after this manner:
``it is written in it, i.e. in the Gospel, "I Aven", neither to diminish from the law of Moses am I come, "but", or "nor" (for in the Amsterdam edition they have inserted (alw) between two hooks), to add to the law of Moses am I come.''

Which, with their last correction, though not a just citation, yet tolerably well expresses the sense; but a most blasphemous character is affixed to Christ, when they call him "Aven"; which signifies "iniquity" itself, and seems to be a wilful corruption of the word "Amen", which begins the next "verse".

What u think?
 
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cvanwey

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What u think?

I think I've already devoted plenty of energy to this side bar topic; most aptly in post 164.

If you wish to address the main contents of the OP, that would be great.

(i.e.)

Since Lucifer appears to have the ability to mimic prophets and messiahs, demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer. Unless Yahweh disallows this action, which begs the question as to why God would allow all other persuaded acts perpetrated or initiated by Lucifer.
 
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cvanwey

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Conscience is intrinsic and universal in that everyone3 knows certain acts are evil and certain acts are good.

I'm gonna have to disagree. Many people kill for their god/gods. Many of which conflict with their opponent's views of 'good and evil'. Some condone physical punishment towards their children, while many others diametrically oppose such accepted acts. Their exists no 'true standard' for classifying 'evil.'

Heck, my son, at the age of two, had no problem punching me in the face, while I was napping on the couch. All-the-while, having no intuition it was 'bad.' It was later learned.


spiritual experiences otoh are difficult to discern and people more often than not get them wrong without external help

I agree. I would dare to say there exists no 'absolute standard' to determine if such 'contact' is actually from an external source. And if it is, if such a source is from what the recipient thinks the source originates... (i.e.) 'God spoke to me'. When in reality, it was either instead the devil, or a delusion entirely. How could you 'know'?


the evil spirit can imitate the spiritual states that the Holy Spirit gives. The difference being in intensity and ultimate end. The evil spirit offers an intense but superficial experience with no benefit to the soul in the end. It is like a drop of water on a stone. Big splash but no water permeates, no change. The Holy Spirit acts like a drop of water on a sponge. No splash but the water permeates and offers sanctity to the soul. A permanent change.

Prove it.
 
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the iconoclast

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Since Lucifer appears to have the ability to mimic prophets and messiahs, demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer.

Hey hey cvanwey :)

John 14:9
Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'?

John 14:6
Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.

2 Corinthians 4:4
The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel that displays the glory of Christ who is the image of God.

But this below scripture is very interesting.

Matthew 16:23
Jesus turned and said to Peter, “Get behind me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to me; you do not have in mind the concerns of God, but merely human concerns.”

This demonstrates that Jesus is not lucifer.


Unless Yahweh disallows this action, which begs the question as to why God would allow all other persuaded acts perpetrated or initiated by Lucifer.

I assume you are familiar with Job and satan presenting himself to God?

I have gone back over post 164. What in particular about verse 18 do you want to discuss?

But I then ask, what about the ten commandments? Are those still binding?

They are reduced to the 2 great commandments which encompass the 10 commandments. The OT is foundation.

What u think?

Cheers
 
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cvanwey

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Hey hey cvanwey :)

John 14:9
Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'?

John 14:6
Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.

2 Corinthians 4:4
The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel that displays the glory of Christ who is the image of God.

Your argument is viciously circular sir. You are using the very words of the perpetrator, whom was tricking the people he was trying to convince. As stated originally, several times now; Satan has the ability to lie, deceive, and perform tricks. Which would later spawn individuals to write such documentation (i.e.) the NT. You can't use the NT to prove the NT ;) This is exactly what such a person of deceit is wanting to achieve all along.

But this below scripture is very interesting.

Matthew 16:23
Jesus turned and said to Peter, “Get behind me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to me; you do not have in mind the concerns of God, but merely human concerns.”

This demonstrates that Jesus is not lucifer.

No it does not. Anyone can lie, deceive, and trick. Furthermore, couple this with a few magic tricks thrown in, for good measure, and you have the perfect recipe for ultimate trickery. (i.e.) Pretending he is a messiah, and having many fall for such a scheme. Maybe it's all non-believers in the Christ, whom are correct; whom worship an alternate claimed god(s), or no supernatural being(s) at all?

As stated many times now, Satan's goal appears to be harvesting as many souls as possible; to dwell with him in his environment. Getting many to worship the wrong deity would certainly accomplish this task.


I assume you are familiar with Job and satan presenting himself to God?

Old Testament story..., not relevant. Lucifer came to pass himself as a messiah, to trick people into worshiping a false god, using NT criteria.

I have gone back over post 164. What in particular about verse 18 do you want to discuss?

I feel you have your hands full enough with this topic already, but thank you for asking :)

They are reduced to the 2 great commandments which encompass the 10 commandments. The OT is foundation.

What u think?

You cannot have the NT, while getting rid of the OT. Otherwise, you must also ignore the commandments and prophecy. Even 'Jesus', whom is Satan in disguise, does not distinguish specifically which laws to no longer adhere to.

But even if he did, he is Satan, so who cares :)
 
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the iconoclast

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Your argument is viciously circular sir.

Hey hey cvanwey my dear ;p

Circular logic is when A is true because B is true; B is true because A is true. I guess a form of it might be Jesus Christ is God. Therefore, Jesus Christ is God. I do not believe iam guilty of such a thing.

Interesting, lets check out another example from wiki.

Whatever is less dense than water will float, because whatever is less dense than water will float. However Whatever is less dense than water will float, because such objects won't sink in water' might pass. This example supplys a reason.

Anyways i chose those verses for a reason, because - with the exception of 2 cor 4:4 - they are claims made by Jesus about who He is in relation to God and lucifer. I also chose them to see how you would react and to keep our conversation flowing. ;p I chose 2 cor 4:4 because i accept Paul as an authority.

So 2 cor is more an appeal to authority - but i can argue that yielding to an expert can be justified. That appeal becomes a question of trust and an arguement why it should be trusted.

You are using the very words of the perpetrator, whom was tricking the people he was trying to convince.

Im quoting the words of Jesus to show you what He claimed about Himself. Someone may say to me who is Jesus, how then show i answer if not with what He said?

If i was to ask you who is Jesus how would you answer and what body of information would you use to base it off? What you have done is made an accusation that Jesus is a trickster and a fraud. How do you prove this accusation and by what authority?

As stated originally, several times now; Satan has the ability to lie, deceive, and perform tricks.

Im curious, do you base this conclusion from OT verses or through NT verses? What is your authority that satan is a lair and etc? Why do you believe Jesus that is lucifer? "demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer." What type of evidence do you expect - from me - which would demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer?

Which would later spawn individuals to write such documentation (i.e.) the NT.

What is do you mean here?

You can't use the NT to prove the NT

Fair enough. :) Lets consider the below verse John 14:9 Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? So it would be pointless to quote this verse in general or ever? What are we to do with this verse? Is there ever a time i can quote this verse?

This is exactly what such a person of deceit is wanting to achieve all along.

So if such a person wants to acheive such things, can you give a reason as to why this person does? Why and what do you think?

No it does not. Anyone can lie, deceive, and trick.

So how do i know you are not deceived and trying to deceive me? What offer can you give me as opposed to the offer of salvation through Jesus Christ? Why should we Christians listen to you?

Furthermore, couple this with a few magic tricks thrown in, for good measure, and you have the perfect recipe for ultimate trickery.

What magic tricks do you refer to?

(i.e.) Pretending he is a messiah, and having many fall for such a scheme.

Lets say one day i hear about Jesus Christ and how to become saved. I followed the steps and became filled with the Holy Spirit. This experience effects me in such a way that here im - wasting my time - imploring you about Jesus. What do you think about this in relation to the statement you made?

Maybe it's all non-believers in the Christ, whom are correct; whom worship an alternate claimed god(s), or no supernatural being(s) at all?

The question is do you believe this to be so? If yes, what convinced you?

As stated many times now, Satan's goal appears to be harvesting as many souls as possible; to dwell with him in his environment. Getting many to worship the wrong deity would certainly accomplish this task.

How did you reach this conclusion? What do you base it off and do you agree with said scripture?

Old Testament story..., not relevant.

My dear, very relevant! ;p I would like to bring your attention to a statement in your own post. Job 1 7-12 is relevant.

Cvanwey - "Unless Yahweh disallows this action, which begs the question as to why God would allow all other persuaded acts perpetrated or initiated by Lucifer."

One day the angels came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satanalso came with them. Job 1 7 - 12

7 The LORD said to Satan, “Where have you come from?” Satan answered the LORD, “From roaming throughout the earth, going back and forth on it.”

8 Then the LORD said to Satan, “Have you considered my servant Job? There is no one on earth like him; he is blameless and upright, a man who fears God and shuns evil.”

9“Does Job fear God for nothing?” Satan replied.

10 “Have you not put a hedge around him and his household and everything he has? You have blessed the work of his hands, so that his flocks and herds are spread throughout the land.

11 But now stretch out your hand and strike everything he has, and he will surely curse you to your face.”

12 The LORD said to Satan, “Very well, then, everything he has is in your power, but on the man himself do not lay a finger.” Then Satan went out from the presence of the LORD.

Lucifer can only act in the confines that God allows him to act. Lucifer has a license in a sense. Lucifer can only act under limitations. What you think?

Lucifer came to pass himself as a messiah, to trick people into worshiping a false god, using NT criteria.

You seem to be suggesting that lucifer passed himself of as The Christ ie Jesus, how do you prove this? I received the Spirit when i accepted Christ? What do you believe this thing inside me is? Do you accept OT as authority?

I feel you have your hands full enough with this topic already, but thank you for asking

I do mind. Check out how long this post is so far - but i agree we should not indulge in length but indulge me, what in particular about verse 18 do you want to discuss?

You cannot have the NT, while getting rid of the OT.

Please excuse me. I did not suggest we remove the OT. Its apart of my Bible and foundtain. What in particular are you having trouble understanding with regards to OT, NT, law of moses and law of grace?

Otherwise, you must also ignore the commandments and prophecy.

We do not ignore these. Ask me what you need to ask?

Even 'Jesus', whom is Satan in disguise,

I disgaree.

does not distinguish specifically which laws to no longer adhere to.

Jesus said On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets. When Jesus was down here, He was under the law of moses and He was under the law of moses when Died - and He kept it perfectly. That was the problem when the sanhredrin came to ping Him. He was judged by the sanhedrin as blasphemous which carried the death penalty.

He also said this "For verily I say unto you, Till. heaven and earth pass, one jot or one. tittle shall in no wise pass from. the law, till all be fulfilled." Fulfilled is noteworthy. Very relevant!

Jesus did not specify which parts of law or what should be superceded. The revelation of the law of Grace didnt come home to the disciples until the day of Pentecost. Jesus taught the disciples about things to come and he said to wait until they received the Spirit and they would recall all the things He taught them. The law of Grace was revealed through Jesus by the Holy Spirit. John 16:7-8 "But I tell you the truth, it is to your advantage that I go away; for if I do not go away, the Comforter will not come to you; but if I go, I will send Him to you The comforter is the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is instrumental revealing the will of God to Christ's followers. To sum the law of grace was revelation to the believers, they no longer had Jesus to teach and expound things. They needed and got the Holy Spirit to teach, and encourage - as seen in John 16:7 What you think?

But even if he did, he is Satan, so who cares

What type of logic is this? What is your point here? How does this work? Cheers you diamond
 
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cvanwey

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Circular logic is when A is true because B is true; B is true because A is true. I guess a form of it might be Jesus Christ is God. Therefore, Jesus Christ is God. I do not believe iam guilty of such a thing.

One of my main points was to demonstrate that Lucifer has the ability to deceive many, change form, and perform magic tricks. Which in turn, would later spawn many to write of such anecdotal tales. You are then using the very words of the perpetrator himself, if recorded correctly, 'straight from the devil's mouth'.

Your argument is circular, in the fact that you are quoting passages from the very book in which the devil was the catalyst in creating :)


I chose 2 cor 4:4 because i accept Paul as an authority.

I state Saul was deceived while on his way to Damascus. Saul received a vision from the devil, disguised as God. (Before you respond to this assertion, please read post #1 again carefully) :)


If i was to ask you who is Jesus how would you answer and what body of information would you use to base it off? What you have done is made an accusation that Jesus is a trickster and a fraud. How do you prove this accusation and by what authority?

My assertion is no more or less 'verified' than [you] asserting it is the 'word of God.' Please re-read post #1 again for reference.

Im curious, do you base this conclusion from OT verses or through NT verses? What is your authority that satan is a lair and etc? Why do you believe Jesus that is lucifer? "demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer." What type of evidence do you expect - from me - which would demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer?

The Old Testament...

Many will argue Satan was the 'serpent' directly, or had a direct hand in such a plot to deceive God's two created original humans. Going back to the OP, tell me how you would distinguish deception from a deceiving force, whom is stated to have full ability to do as such (verses) communication being from an undeceiving God force?

How would you know? If you state the Bible tells you so, then you are viciously circular :)

Because again, it is implied Satan has the ability to trick humans. Whose to say the entire NT is nothing more than a planed manifestation from Lucifer himself. Whom later also initiated deception in the creation of the Holy Quran, the Book of Mormon, Scientology, etc...? And if Yahweh does not allow such acts, then one must then ask, why would God place a limitation on this specific type of act, while still allowing Satan to 'reek havoc' in a countless amount of other ways towards humans?.?.?


So if such a person wants to acheive such things, can you give a reason as to why this person does? Why and what do you think?

Companionship.... Just as God created humans to reside with him in Heaven, Satan also wishes for as many humans as possible to reside next to him, (for whatever motives floats his boat).

So how do i know you are not deceived and trying to deceive me? What offer can you give me as opposed to the offer of salvation through Jesus Christ? Why should we Christians listen to you?

I think you are missing the point :)

If Lucifer is said to have the ability to change form, perform magic tricks, and lie to humans at will, WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case? If God DOES stop Lucifer, then why doesn't God stop Lucifer from perpetuating all sorts of instigated evil acts across the globe throughout all of recorded history? On the flip side, if God does NOT restrict Lucifer's free will at all, then you could very well be reading the verses from a book orchestrated by Satan ;)
 
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the iconoclast

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One of my main points was to demonstrate that Lucifer has the ability to deceive many, change form, and perform magic tricks. Which in turn, would later spawn many to write of such anecdotal tales. You are then using the very words of the perpetrator himself, if recorded correctly, 'straight from the devil's mouth'. Your argument is circular, in the fact that you are quoting passages from the very book in which the devil was the catalyst in creating I state Saul was deceived while on his way to Damascus. Saul received a vision from the devil, disguised as God. (Before you respond to this assertion, please read post #1 again carefully) My assertion is no more or less 'verified' than [you] asserting it is the 'word of God.' Please re-read post #1 again for reference. The Old Testament... Many will argue Satan was the 'serpent' directly, or had a direct hand in such a plot to deceive God's two created original humans. Going back to the OP, tell me how you would distinguish deception from a deceiving force, whom is stated to have full ability to do as such (verses) communication being from an undeceiving God force? How would you know? If you state the Bible tells you so, then you are viciously circular Because again, it is implied Satan has the ability to trick humans. Whose to say the entire NT is nothing more than a planed manifestation from Lucifer himself. Whom later also initiated deception in the creation of the Holy Quran, the Book of Mormon, Scientology, etc...? And if Yahweh does not allow such acts, then one must then ask, why would God place a limitation on this specific type of act, while still allowing Satan to 'reek havoc' in a countless amount of other ways towards humans?.?.? Companionship.... Just as God created humans to reside with him in Heaven, Satan also wishes for as many humans as possible to reside next to him, (for whatever motives floats his boat). I think you are missing the point If Lucifer is said to have the ability to change form, perform magic tricks, and lie to humans at will, WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case? If God DOES stop Lucifer, then why doesn't God stop Lucifer from perpetuating all sorts of instigated evil acts across the globe throughout all of recorded history? On the flip side, if God does NOT restrict Lucifer's free will at all, then you could very well be reading the verses from a book orchestrated by Satan

Hey hey my dear cvanwey ;p

I noticed you missed out a lot of my post and chose questions that you wanted to address. I guess a precedent is now made. I think i may take a similar liberty and reset our discussion - it was getting quite long - and only address the core of what you say.

I think your last post sums up your position

1. If Lucifer is said to have the ability to change form, perform magic tricks, and lie to humans at will, WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case?

2.If God DOES stop Lucifer, then why doesn't God stop Lucifer from perpetuating all sorts of instigated evil acts across the globe throughout all of recorded history?

3. On the flip side, if God does NOT restrict Lucifer's free will at all, then you could very well be reading the verses from a book orchestrated by Satan

I got the jist that you reject any NT verses and will only accept OT verses. This is not a problem for me.

Lets start with number 1 and keep the info relevant to the substance here.

1. If Lucifer is said to have the ability to change form, perform magic tricks, and lie to humans at will, WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case?

So your charge is that lucifer could be masquerading and deceiving Christians by making himself appear as Jesus. You suggest a motivation for such deception is satans desire for company in hell as compared to Gods desire for companionship in heaven.

Lets start in a laxed manner, ill give you a few questions and we will examine your claim - see if it holds any water.

Ps the burden of proof is on you as it is you making the claim. Let the examination commence.

Cvanwey - "WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case?"

This question is a matter of possibility (.eg a thing that may happen or be the case.) So we will look at reason and motivation using OT scripture.

A. If lucifer can only act within the limitations that God allows. What do you think the motivation was for God to deceive humans by sending lucifer to preach sermons of compassion, love for God - and your neighbour - forgiveness, render to caesar and help those in need?

B. The jews were waiting for the Messiah. Why does Jesus not fit the OT prophecies?

C. I curious, what OT scripture do you use to back your statement that God created us for companionship?

D. What do you think about the Holy Spirit?

Cheers. ;p
 
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cvanwey

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Hey hey my dear cvanwey ;p

I noticed you missed out a lot of my post and chose questions that you wanted to address. I guess a precedent is now made. I think i may take a similar liberty and reset our discussion - it was getting quite long - and only address the core of what you say.

I think your last post sums up your position

:)

1. If Lucifer is said to have the ability to change form, perform magic tricks, and lie to humans at will, WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case?

2.If God DOES stop Lucifer, then why doesn't God stop Lucifer from perpetuating all sorts of instigated evil acts across the globe throughout all of recorded history?

3. On the flip side, if God does NOT restrict Lucifer's free will at all, then you could very well be reading the verses from a book orchestrated by Satan

Yes, please address these three core questions above, along with:


4. Since Lucifer's scope of ability would seem to be that he can mimic prophets and messiahs, maybe he (also) impersonated Muhammad, Joseph Smith, L. Ron Hubbard, etc... to get mass droves of people top break the first commandment, and go to hell, making his later job easier?

And when in doubt, please re-address the OP when needed. I realize the 'burden of proof' now resides upon my side. As we progress, you will see how this does not really mater, and that it is QUITE easy for me to 'justify' my case :)


I got the jist that you reject any NT verses and will only accept OT verses. This is not a problem for me.

For me, here's the 'gist'. Since 'truth' in religion, even under the Abrahamic belief structure, is not well defined; as evidence by the many many many denominations, I can freely and selectively choose which parts to adhere to, ignore, 're-word', 're-translate, 'state no longer applies', etc...

But yes, for starters, I 'assert' that Lucifer mimicked a 'messiah', and got many to follow. Satan would then know later people would write stories about him, getting millions/billions to believe such stories. Which in turn, later making Satan's job easier; and to go only after the rest. (i.e.) On to impersonating 'Muhammad', rinse/repeat....

For me... Maybe the Bible was right in the since that it mentions a character whom defies authority. This character is Lucifer. Maybe this much of the Bible is accurate? If the Bible is correct about such a character's existence, then we have opened up a huge can of worms.

For starters, the entire contents of the Bible is written by mere men. And since men are acknowledged fallible, whose to say what verses are accurate and sound, and which ones are not?

Well, the only verses said to be given 'directly from Yahweh' are the 10 commandments. And even this is suspect, as Moses states this to others, as he brings them back to his tribe, after being alone.

So to recap...

1. Humans are fallible.
2, How do we know such authors of the Bible were receiving messages from God, verses some alternative?
3. Maybe humans were correct, in writing about a character named Lucifer. And IF they were, you then have to answer for many scenarios and questions, as I've laid forth above....


1. If Lucifer is said to have the ability to change form, perform magic tricks, and lie to humans at will, WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case?

So your charge is that lucifer could be masquerading and deceiving Christians by making himself appear as Jesus. You suggest a motivation for such deception is satans desire for company in hell as compared to Gods desire for companionship in heaven.

Lets start in a laxed manner, ill give you a few questions and we will examine your claim - see if it holds any water.

Ps the burden of proof is on you as it is you making the claim. Let the examination commence.

Cvanwey - "WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case?"

This question is a matter of possibility (.eg a thing that may happen or be the case.) So we will look at reason and motivation using OT scripture.

A. If lucifer can only act within the limitations that God allows. What do you think the motivation was for God to deceive humans by sending lucifer to preach sermons of compassion, love for God - and your neighbour - forgiveness, render to caesar and help those in need?

B. The jews were waiting for the Messiah. Why does Jesus not fit the OT prophecies?

C. I curious, what OT scripture do you use to back your statement that God created us for companionship?

D. What do you think about the Holy Spirit?

Cheers. ;p

You did not really address any of my 4 questions :(

But I'll entertain some of your comments/questions, as they may be follow up questions, in an attempt to 'pin' me into a narrow and specific set of assertions.


" A. If lucifer can only act within the limitations that God allows. What do you think the motivation was for God to deceive humans by sending lucifer to preach sermons of compassion, love for God - and your neighbour - forgiveness, render to caesar and help those in need?"

Simple... 'You catch more flies with honey.' (i..e) one of the 'points' which seems to now compel you to believe :) Satan would know they would adhere to the 'wrong' god, and break the first commandment. The rest, as they state, is 'history'. Such humans are then doomed to an eternity of absence from God, and to instead dwell in Satan's realm.

"B. The jews were waiting for the Messiah. Why does Jesus not fit the OT prophecies?"


Name 'prophecies' which were specific to "Jesus"? And even if they WERE, Lucifer could still come to earth as a human, and impersonate such already listed prophecy before God decided to perform as such Himself :) Otherwise, again, you would then alternatively imply that God disallows Lucifer from doing so. Meaning, such an act would be 'off limits' to Satan. Meaning, God monitors Lucifer's free will. Meaning, God restricts Lucifer's abilities. Meaning, God still allows Lucifer to persuade humans to perform 'unspeakable acts' time and time again all over the globe, but somehow does not allow Satan to impersonate a prophet, as told by Bible prophecy...... Odd :)

"C. I curious, what OT scripture do you use to back your statement that God created us for companionship?"


It appears to be one of the many implied premises. Otherwise, why would God create human and interact with them in any capacity in the first place?

That's plenty to get us started :)

Thank you
 
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the iconoclast

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For me, here's the 'gist'. Since 'truth' in religion, even under the Abrahamic belief structure, is not well defined; as evidence by the many many many denominations, I can freely and selectively choose which parts to adhere to, ignore, 're-word', 're-translate, 'state no longer applies', etc...

Hey hey my friend and sorry for the delay. I seem to get myself into trouble alot. Im having a discussion with 2 Christian scientists who are very intriguing.

Anyways... wow thats a lot of words. Good effort. I feel that this response deserves some attention. I think we should get through this slowly and maybe do 2 at a time. That extraordinary post is all the subject matter we need.

What do you mean by truth defined?
What truth is not defined?
How does this idea re many denominations reflect this, what are we divided on?
How do these things justify what you can choose from OT?

1. If Lucifer is said to have the ability to change form, perform magic tricks, and lie to humans at will, WHAT is to stop Lucifer from doing so in this case?

Heads up i can hold a conversation for months and i think thats how much time will be needed. We will need some back and forth aswell.

I read your reply and think this question is going to lead us somewhere

Whats to stop lucifer from deceiving me to thinking that my porridge is burnt toast? Cheers
 
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If so, demonstrate why Jesus was not actually Lucifer in disguise. Along with 'original sin', demonstrate that the Devil did not simply orchestrate yet another point of deception, by getting millions/billions to break the very top commandments, (by worshiping a false god).

It would appear the Devil has the ability to change form. It would appear the Devil has the ability to tempt humans. It would also appear the Devil has special powers, as the Devil appears able to tempt more than one individual at a time - (omnipresence).

If one states that God places limits on the Devil's capabilities, this would appear to negate the 'free will' argument.


So, does the Devil have the ability to impersonate God? If so, then please explain above.


If no, then doesn't this contradict the concept of free will? Which might then beg further questions... Such as, if God places limits to Satan, then why does God allow what God does allow Satan to perform, which causes many to reside in hell?

The point of this thread is to essentially turn the tables a bit... Shake things up, if you will.... Meaning, the skeptic is shifting the burden of proof the other way. The skeptic makes the assertion, and it is now up to the theist to 'disprove' the assertion.

This should be fun :)

This makes for a good argument against libertarian free will, and shifts the discussion towards limited freedom of choices restricted by the nature of will, among other things. In simple terms, Lucifer is on a leash and the freedom of choices are limited and restricted. Even so, how can the finite mind penetrate eternity so as to remove the veil into the mind of an infinite God?

Lucifer might have power, even power to impersonate on a superficial level, but no Angel, fallen or otherwise possesses to the fullest extent the attributes of God.
 
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