What do you do to the scriptures that say Jesus is the savior of ALL people? Saw cuts both ways. I accept the conflict. Do you?
I've been telling you. Do you not read the posts? Or do you just gut react when read something you don't like?
Such verses, like any other verse or passage, must be read in context, both immediate and the whole of Scripture. It also must be understood in many other things --the mindset of the writer, the mindset of the readers, the current cultures, the meaning in the original languages, the use of common language (rhetoric) and literature, the type of literature being used such as poetry, history, etc and on many other considerations. Exegesis.
Bear in mind also that the word "all" is almost always limited to some category. In common language, we might say, "is everyone in the car?" --obviously we don't mean that absolutely all creatures that ever lived and ever will live are in the car --not even that all humanity is!
Such verses are usually referencing one or more of the following:
1. "to all", "for all", "all are", "whole world" and such are saying that there are none who escape the principle --i.e. it applies to all. Thus if there is salvation for anyone, it is through Christ, Christ's atonement, Christ's work, etc. Thus, for example, all of mankind is under the Adam's curse of sin, and so all of mankind must go through Christ in order to be relieved of guilt and penalty and slavery to sin.
2. "to all", "for all", "all are", "whole world" and such are saying that people of all kinds, all peoples, all nations, and particularly that both Jew and Gentile, are included in God's particular grace --not absolutely all individuals.
3. Sometimes the context shows the verse is referencing all of a particular category of people, such as the Elect. Thus, for example, God is not willing that any should perish.
4. Sometimes a verse is completely taken wrong by sentimentality or mistranslation. Thus, for example, what would seem an appeal of God's love for the elect, is changed to God's appeal to some random pool of possibles.
5. There are admitted 2 certain senses in which he died for absolutely all of humanity.
A. that is, like #1 above, that the principle is in place, that should any attend to it, it would in fact apply to them. As it works out, however, none will except those elect to whom he gives mercy, changing their will.
B. he is redeeming the corrupted universe back to purity, putting death to death, through the death of Christ. This does not at all indicate that anyone's sins are atoned for by Christ, who end up paying for their own.
6. It is also admitted that were it possible to complete the same construction he had in mind, that is, the Church, the Dwelling Place of God, the Bride of Christ, without the fall of Lucifer and Adam and subsequent effects, he would have done so, but it is not possible. The People of God thus KNOW the love of God, the immense generosity of God to totally unworthy creatures.
7. It is also relevant that God's purpose in creating a people for himself was not to create a people to burn in the Lake of Fire, but that they were a necessary part of that particular creation --God's Redeemed
8. There are many more explanations that apply to single or more verses, that I don't have time nor inclination to deal with here. These are just some that come immediately to mind. None of them allow for relief of the guilt or debt of sin for those who end up paying their own in the Lake of Fire. Yet the numerous references to condemnation and such go unanswered for the universalist, who wants to categorize the Fire as something purifying at worst.