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Does a 'Thought for Thought' translation or 'Dynamic Equivalence' make a difference?

GDL

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It would seem at least the early Jews did have the original Text and no translation, and they did not understand much of what was written. Same for those who spoke common Greek in the days the Greek documents were written. Then the various copies with variations and then translations. It's amazing we have as much as we have after these millennia. God's involvement is clear.

I agree with you completely. It's always God as our guide and ultimate teacher and it's clear that He favors those who truly believe, obey, Love (with and per His Divine Love) Him.

Thanks, David.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Hi GDL!

Nice to see you here.
 
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BobRyan

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1. First of all it gets to whether or not the definite article "the" is in the Hebrew or merely inferred or whether the indefinite article "a" is in the Hebrew - or merely inferred. In Hebrew there are no indefinite articles so when there is one in a given OT translation it is always being inferred by translators using the rule that if there is no definite article then use indefinite. (I think GDL also mentioned this).

2. "A Sabbath of the Lord" would mean God inspired the Bible and none of the Sabbaths given in Lev 23 (weekly and annual) are "of man" but all are given by God. That would make the seventh day Sabbath one of those God gave mankind and not man making it up.

3. "The Sabbath" is in Vs 8 and 11 as all translators agree - so again as GDL points out the context for vs 10 makes it unambiguous.
 
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reddogs

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Very true, the translation is not the end all be all. But when the meaning is changed, it can make it much harder to understand, and thats all thats needed in a deception or distortion of the truth..
 
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reddogs

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The thing is, they clearly did it with purpose as they do it over and over, and the mainly Catholic reviews at the time praised the "away from the textus receptucus", so they knew it.
 
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GDL

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The thing is, they clearly did it with purpose as they do it over and over, and the mainly Catholic reviews at the time praised the "away from the textus receptucus", so they knew it.

A little more clarity on your main point, please?
 
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