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No to what?
Indeed.
They "did" what God had planned would take place.
Impossible.
God does not tempt man to sin.
He does however live outside of time.
He did indeed know they'd do that.
he did ordain Jesus' death.
He does work all things together for good,
for those who are the called, according to
His purposes.
IMO
Don't mean to sound like a know it all.
I only mean IN MY OPINION to all of the above.
oh my gosh, my post was goofed upI really don't know what you mean by 'expola', would you care to elaborate?
Yes God is, it's called the, 'Aseity of God', or the utter independence of God. It's inextricably linked to God being holy, which literally means separate.When we stop seeing God as tied to this universe, its laws, rules, etc.
God is entirely distinct from His creation. He doesn't reside in our realms of time, imagination, or in any theologian's mind. He is beyond. To comprehend the counsel of God would be to die instantaneously because God is infinite and we are not.
Please reconcile 1 Chronicles 21:1 and 2 Samuel 24:1.
No problem, catch you on the rebound, get out of here you got stuff to do.oh my gosh, my post was goofed up
Please disregard.
i'm trying to get out the door
but keep being drawn to read
posts.
Sorry!
BBL
But what you claim is that a man cannot freely choose to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and accept the grace of God without being quickened from his "totally depraved" state. Calvinists believe that by the "Irresistible Grace" of God, a man is given life so as to have faith, thereby granting unconditional election, whether the individual would have chosen said salvation or not. You also do not believe that Christ died for the entire world, and that a saint must endure to the end to be saved; while "Perseverance of the Saints" states that all saints will endure to the end, it is dramatically different from the doctrine of "Once saved, Always saved."
Am I right or wrong?
What's a Calvinist?Simple question
Please reconcile 1 Chronicles 21:1 and 2 Samuel 24:1.
Hah! It's actually not a simple question.
Does God want believers to sin in a moral sense? No. God's commands that we not sin.
Does God sovereignly ordain our sin and use it for his good purposes? Yes. This is exactly what God did with the worst sin ever committed - the betrayal, arrest, and murder of the Son of God. The murder of Jesus was free actions of men which God did not approve of, but he did sovereignly decree in order to accomplish our salvation.
Simple question
Salvation is monergistic, not out of the inscrutable and hidden will of God; but in the revealed will of God, in His grace for the world, revealed in Jesus Christ, given to us through the Means of Grace: Word and Sacrament.
God ordains our salvation, willing it, not by an indiscriminate and inscrutable choice; but through the death and resurrection of His Son by which He condescends and encounters this fallen, broken, and sinful world with His love, in grace, in order to redeem, rescue, renew, and heal it.
-CryptoLutheran
You are using vocabulary nijutsu to attempt to explain away your notion that God does, from your perspective, will (or decree, as you like to say) that man sins. In essence, you accuse God of "decreeing" sin and somehow attempt to pass this off as Him not willing it.
But how can you say that God does not want people to sin, thereby commanding that we not sin, and yet--in your theology--you purport that He simultaneously decrees that men act contrary to His will and commit sins?
If you mean that God would not violate the free will of sinful men in order to prevent His crucifixion, then I am in agreement with you. But if you mean that God in no way willed that these same sinful men repent and, in fact, that He willed that they would not repent but rather act sinfully, then I cannot agree with you, and I would consider this notion blasphemous, since it is a fact that the Lord Jesus did not come to destroy men's lives, but to same them; moreover, God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son; and, He does not delight in the death of a sinner; lastly, God wills that all men be saved, not wishing any to perish.
Now, if people with a darkened understanding would like to interpret the words, "world", "all men", etc as they pertain to the aforementioned Scriptures speaking of God's desire to save us, and say that they speak of only those whom God willed to save, i.e. the elect, then this is another discussion. But piety and reason, and the Holy Spirit, contradict this horrible assertion that they make, since--first of all--they blatantly distort the meaning of Scripture to fit their own faulty presumptions. Secondly, such an assertion is false because, in order for God to truly be just, He must extend the same opportunity to repent, believe, and be saved to all men, not just those whom He elected.
And, further, it is a flawed understanding to say that God's election, predestination, justification, and glorification was not based on His foreknowledge of those whom He called; more than this, it is impious to accuse God of arbitrarily saving some and condemning others without regard for man's free will.
Calvinists don't believe in free will.
They believe that God created some destined for hell and some destined for heaven. So, yes, ultimately.
But they're wrong according to the Bible.
Calvinists don't believe in free will.
They believe that God created some destined for hell and some destined for heaven. So, yes, ultimately.
But they're wrong according to the Bible.
Did God ordain them to do it or allow them to do it?Hah! It's actually not a simple question.
Does God want believers to sin in a moral sense? No. God's commands that we not sin.
Does God sovereignly ordain our sin and use it for his good purposes? Yes. This is exactly what God did with the worst sin ever committed - the betrayal, arrest, and murder of the Son of God. The murder of Jesus was free actions of men which God did not approve of, but he did sovereignly decree in order to accomplish our salvation.
Did God ordain them to do it or allow them to do it?Hah! It's actually not a simple question.
Does God want believers to sin in a moral sense? No. God's commands that we not sin.
Does God sovereignly ordain our sin and use it for his good purposes? Yes. This is exactly what God did with the worst sin ever committed - the betrayal, arrest, and murder of the Son of God. The murder of Jesus was free actions of men which God did not approve of, but he did sovereignly decree in order to accomplish our salvation.
If God is outside of time is it ever "will do" for God or is it all history for God, so it is want we did do in the future for God?It's an interesting issue. While I do not believe that God makes us sin, we sin of our own 'free will' (not true free will, mind you) but that God already knew everything we did, do, and would do. My personal opinion.
I was with you until you said that salvation is monergistic.
Now, for you to say that what distinguishes you from Calvinists is simply that you say salvation was according to God's revealed will rather than His hidden will, I cannot understand how this is relevant.
This discussion is centered on the disputation of whether or not God wills man to sin. What is your answer to this question?
With regards to salvation, all I can gather from what you said is this: God saves us by His grace. Okay, Amen to that. That's always been true. No one disputes this.
For you to say that God ordains our salvation, willing it, you are not saying something that contradicts Calvinists. They say this too, as far as I understand.
Who convicts us of our sin? The Holy Spirit. Who repents? Not the Holy Spirit, but man. How is a man capable of repenting? Through God's grace if that man desire to repent. Does his repentance entitle him to salvation? Of course not. Why not? Salvation is not earned, since it is by grace through faith. Thus, let the sinner acknowledge his sin by the grace of God. Let the sinner repent by the grace of God. Let the sinner have faith in Jesus Christ by the grace of God. Let him live righteously by the grace of God. Let the him be saved by the grace of God. But do not deprive him of his free will and do not say that he had nothing to do with his own salvation. Or else, what sense does it make for God to issue commandments, or for the Apostles to urge men to repent and believe and save themselves (Read St Peter's sermon in Acts 2)?
We never attribute a man's salvation to his own works or will, for how can man save himself? But if God is the Savior and the Redeemer and He offers man salvation and eternal life in Christ Jesus, we speak piously if we say that man is capable of repentance, faith, and righteous works. We speak piously if we say that these things are only possible with God's grace. And we speak piously and truthfully if we say that if these things are so, then we cannot assert that salvation is monergistic but rather synergistic.
If salvation were monergistic, then God is unjust and unrighteous, since He saves some and condemns others according to His arbitrary will, regarding nothing to be of any import on the part of His creation. And if this is the case, then all men everywhere ought to cry out with indignation to God and say, "Why, if you have deemed us all as sinners worthy of hell, unrighteous and ungodly--why did you not will for us all to be saved? For, if in truth, you are no respector of persons, then you have acted contrary to your nature by arbitrarily choosing to save others and not willing that we be saved also!"
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