You may have missed where I said in that post, "If some scientists think they can identify syntax and semantics that give it some family resemblance (in the Wittgensteinian sense) to languages in general, it is sufficiently different from any other language type to justify its own subdefinition, much as programming languages have."Of course they didn't say anything about origins. They merely established it is literally a language. Why is that so hard to admit?
The point is that, whatever particular linguistic features may have been identified, it is not like any human language, doesn't function like any human language, and isn't used like any human language; so it would be unwise to make any inferences about it based on knowledge of human languages.
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