- Sep 29, 2015
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I do have an alternative interpretation.Do you have an alternative interpretation? Just curious ... I also think Jesus is stating an grounds for divorce (for a husband to send his wife away officially). Do you think Jesus meant something else?
This exception to the general rule against any divorce is found twice in Matthew but in Matthew alone. Not Mark or Luke or John. Why is it particular to Matthew? It's the Jewish Gospel, and the exception has to be framed in that context. The word so many translators have used for 'inappropriate contentea' is 'adultery'. But that is only one of the many allowable meanings for 'inappropriate contentea'. Not the guaranteed meaning, not the contextual meaning, but the common Protestant assumed meaning. Here's why I think it is the wrong meaning.
First, I think the teaching on divorce in the synoptic gospels is the same. Which is to say no exception for adultery. Or they would have all had an exception for adultery, which they don't. Matthew's 'exception' is best read not as a completion of the teaching in the other Gospels but as a sort of obvious clause that the Jewish readers and listeners would have expected. And I think it actually refers to incest. Of course you can get a divorce if you discover you were married incestuously. In fact you have to. And then you are free to marry again for the first real time, but a bit more carefully. No foul, no enduring marriage, start over.
In other parts of the New Testament 'inappropriate contentea' is a sort of wide word for sexual immorality but I think in Matthew it is to be read very narrowly. Three examples of the wider use of inappropriate contentea are:
“The body is not meant for inappropriate contenteia but for the Lord” (1 Corinthians 6:13).
“Flee from inappropriate contenteia. All other sins a person commits are outside the body, but whoever sins sexually, sins against their own body” (1 Corinthians 6:18).
“But among you there must not be even a hint of inappropriate contenteia, or of any kind of impurity, or of greed, because these are improper for God’s holy people” (Ephesians 5:3).
The reason I think it must be narrowly interpreted in Matthew is that if it were to be widely interpreted it would also have been in each of the synoptic gospels.
Why do I not think it is adultery? Because the solution to an adulterous spouse is stoning and not divorce. Divorce is too mild. Another reason is that the Greek word for adultery is 'moicheia'. It would have been useful for the Gospel writers to have been specific if they intended divorce. It would have been useful for translators not to have constructed a doctrine about divorce for adultery when the actual word used wasn't the specific word for adultery.
What is my view on when a divorce can be had? And when can one remarry?
First a separation may be proper for reasons of safety or sanity or infidelity. A civil divorce may be necessary for the same reasons. But this does not mean that a remarriage is allowable for a Christian. For that we have to look a bit deeper at exceptions, both Biblical and Traditional. I would think it obvious in the matter of incest. I would also consider it obvious in the case of forced marriages and marriages under false pretenses and massive immaturity on the part of one or both when they are saying their vows. All of these things should mean that the marriage should have never taken place in the first place. Something was wrong from day zero and it should be rectified. There wasn't a 'real' marriage there, but only the trappings of one. These are the people who should be free of marriage and eligible to marry again for the first real time.The rest made a vow, a real and permanent vow, and they should stand in faithfulness to that vow even if they can't live with their spouse.
So if the vow was faulty in the first place, getting out from that vow is proper. But if the vow was real, it is a permanent vow.Whatever 'inappropriate contentea' means in the narrow sense of Matthew would qualify. Incest would qualify as something that can't be a real marriage. So would a secret drug addiction, a massive lie, a massive immaturity, a trial marriage, a bunch of things where the marriage was all wrong to begin with. I just don't think catching a spouse in adultery is a ticket out of a marriage commitment. A continually philandering spouse who philandered before marriage and never stopped would be a different story, but one who strayed once, no.
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