Simply put:
We know originally, neither the man, nor the woman ("in the beginning divorce was not so Matt. 19:8) was allowed to divorce their spouse. This was called a Unilateral Covenant. A covenant in which both parties made a oath to the other, that was not subject to the others actions. That means, that if either of them broke their promises or oaths in the marriage, neither were able to divorce (no exception clause). Because of man's heart growing continually hard towards the other in marriage, Moses eventually gave the man permission for a Writ of Divorcement Deuteronomy 24:1. This covenant now with a clause only on the man's side. For Moses knew, the woman was made for the man 1 Cor. 11:8-9
A marriage covenant is not abolished until it is done according to God's guidelines in Scripture, otherwise if you marry again you will be committing adultery against your former spouse Matt. 5:32, 19:9, Mark 10:11-12 and Luke 16:18. A woman was not allowed, by Scripture, to initiate the divorce.
The New Testament now, in no way, contradicts the moral guidelines and doctrines given from the Law of Moses concerning divorce and remarriage (still considered adultery if improperly divorced and marries another). That is, of course, other then commanding the Christian not to divorce the unbeliever if they are still willing to remain in the marriage (sanctified), or telling the Christian to divorce the unbeliever if they instead wish to separate (for mercies sake to remain in peace with the unbeliever 1 Cor. 7:15c).
Jesus acknowledges the Law of Moses when addressing the crowd (Sermon on the Mount Matt. 5:31-32) and the Pharisees (Matt. 19:9) in this matter. Matter of fact the first letter to the Corinthian chapter 7: verse 11a (only the woman told to remain unmarried or reconcile), verse 27 (the man told not to seek to be loosed from his wife), and verse 39 (only the woman is bound of law to the husband) would only seem to further support these principles. So, in conclusion, the Law of Moses still seems to have been considered (all scripture is God breathed and useful for doctrine) concerning divorce and remarriage in the Church (1 Cor. 7). Even if they were a Jew or Gentile believer.
They say a Christian should not divorce their spouse for 'adultery', but most Christians believe they have a "right" if adultery was committed Matt. 19:9. There are many laws in the Law of Moses that permits the men certain rights (like taking a slave girl and a additional woman as a wife Ex. 21:11; or taking a captive woman as a wife but setting her free if she does not please you Deut 21:14). Just because the Law of Moses permits a man to do something, this does not mean a Christian shares these same permissions. Paul made it clear, but now a Christian is charged (commanded) by Jesus not to separate ...or leave the marriage 1 Cor. 7:10-11, or for man to even seek it 1 Cor. 7:27.
One may ask, but what if they broke the marriage covenant, doesn't the Scriptures say I have a right to divorce them?
The woman is under the man; first under her father (Num. 30:2-16), then given to the man (a bridal price was paid for her) in marriage, and now called under-man (Greek Rom. 7:2a) in which he now has rule over her (Gen. 3:16). Because of this, even though both made a covenant promise to the other, only the man was given the permission in the marriage to divorce her if she was found to be sexually unclean. The bible has many examples showing that if the woman had the right to divorce her husband under the Law, it would have seemed to give that hint (Judges 19:2, Hosea 2:7, Ex. 21:11, Duet. 21:14 (set her free), and Duet. 22:19, 29 only man is said cannot divorce her all the days of his life)
Jesus made it clear, it was because of man's sinful heart, being able to forgive ("hardheartedness") that he was permitted, in the first place. But Christians are clearly told to remain in the marriage, as long as their (unbelieving) spouse is willing to stay (1 Cor. 7:12-13); and given the example to allow an unfaithful woman to return in the marriage (Judah Jer. 3:9-11). If we are told to endure such things for unbelievers, should we not more so do to believing Christians who want to return to their marriage? For God divorced unfaithful Israel, only when she was unwilling to return from her many lovers Jer. 3:8 (Hosea chap. 2).
We know originally, neither the man, nor the woman ("in the beginning divorce was not so Matt. 19:8) was allowed to divorce their spouse. This was called a Unilateral Covenant. A covenant in which both parties made a oath to the other, that was not subject to the others actions. That means, that if either of them broke their promises or oaths in the marriage, neither were able to divorce (no exception clause). Because of man's heart growing continually hard towards the other in marriage, Moses eventually gave the man permission for a Writ of Divorcement Deuteronomy 24:1. This covenant now with a clause only on the man's side. For Moses knew, the woman was made for the man 1 Cor. 11:8-9
A marriage covenant is not abolished until it is done according to God's guidelines in Scripture, otherwise if you marry again you will be committing adultery against your former spouse Matt. 5:32, 19:9, Mark 10:11-12 and Luke 16:18. A woman was not allowed, by Scripture, to initiate the divorce.
The New Testament now, in no way, contradicts the moral guidelines and doctrines given from the Law of Moses concerning divorce and remarriage (still considered adultery if improperly divorced and marries another). That is, of course, other then commanding the Christian not to divorce the unbeliever if they are still willing to remain in the marriage (sanctified), or telling the Christian to divorce the unbeliever if they instead wish to separate (for mercies sake to remain in peace with the unbeliever 1 Cor. 7:15c).
Jesus acknowledges the Law of Moses when addressing the crowd (Sermon on the Mount Matt. 5:31-32) and the Pharisees (Matt. 19:9) in this matter. Matter of fact the first letter to the Corinthian chapter 7: verse 11a (only the woman told to remain unmarried or reconcile), verse 27 (the man told not to seek to be loosed from his wife), and verse 39 (only the woman is bound of law to the husband) would only seem to further support these principles. So, in conclusion, the Law of Moses still seems to have been considered (all scripture is God breathed and useful for doctrine) concerning divorce and remarriage in the Church (1 Cor. 7). Even if they were a Jew or Gentile believer.
They say a Christian should not divorce their spouse for 'adultery', but most Christians believe they have a "right" if adultery was committed Matt. 19:9. There are many laws in the Law of Moses that permits the men certain rights (like taking a slave girl and a additional woman as a wife Ex. 21:11; or taking a captive woman as a wife but setting her free if she does not please you Deut 21:14). Just because the Law of Moses permits a man to do something, this does not mean a Christian shares these same permissions. Paul made it clear, but now a Christian is charged (commanded) by Jesus not to separate ...or leave the marriage 1 Cor. 7:10-11, or for man to even seek it 1 Cor. 7:27.
One may ask, but what if they broke the marriage covenant, doesn't the Scriptures say I have a right to divorce them?
The woman is under the man; first under her father (Num. 30:2-16), then given to the man (a bridal price was paid for her) in marriage, and now called under-man (Greek Rom. 7:2a) in which he now has rule over her (Gen. 3:16). Because of this, even though both made a covenant promise to the other, only the man was given the permission in the marriage to divorce her if she was found to be sexually unclean. The bible has many examples showing that if the woman had the right to divorce her husband under the Law, it would have seemed to give that hint (Judges 19:2, Hosea 2:7, Ex. 21:11, Duet. 21:14 (set her free), and Duet. 22:19, 29 only man is said cannot divorce her all the days of his life)
Jesus made it clear, it was because of man's sinful heart, being able to forgive ("hardheartedness") that he was permitted, in the first place. But Christians are clearly told to remain in the marriage, as long as their (unbelieving) spouse is willing to stay (1 Cor. 7:12-13); and given the example to allow an unfaithful woman to return in the marriage (Judah Jer. 3:9-11). If we are told to endure such things for unbelievers, should we not more so do to believing Christians who want to return to their marriage? For God divorced unfaithful Israel, only when she was unwilling to return from her many lovers Jer. 3:8 (Hosea chap. 2).
