Calminian said:
But how do we know it is a requirement? Maybe the part about it being a requirement was one of those factual contradictions that God supposedly allows.
Boy, Homer's Iliad and Odyssey could be called divine using this criteria!
The point is that with each text, we are called to determine what God is actually telling us, and what this means about what actually happened. There is no magic bullet of hermenuetics by which we can avoid this responsibility. Just because we know that one text must be read as literal history does not, in any way, mean that we MUST take all of them the same way.
And I am sure you don't. I am sure there are many texts which you recognize as using figurative language. So, would you say it was correct to say that since you take some of Psalms or Revelation or even, possibly, all of Job (as Calvin did), as figurative language or stories, that you must doubt the resurrection account? No, this just doesn't make sense.
Here is another very important point. The fact that God used figurative language to describe His Creation process does not mean that the process did not happen, that it was not a literal event. It was a literal event, something that happened in history. The Creation WAS a literal event, it did happen, and every essential truth of that process is told in Scripture.
Now, with the resurrection, it is again a LITERAL event, something that happened in history. So, both stories are the same in that regard, and we both agree that Scripture asserts that both things happened. The difference is in the literary style of the presentation. You can tell about a literal, historical event either with literal, historical narrative, or in a figurative, non-literal style. Both work, both are viable and valuable methods of telling about a real past event. The only difference between you and I is that I am willing to allow God to use EITHER style to tell about the event, whereas you insist that God can only have used the one which is your basic default for stories about the past.