Of course, children are a gift from God, and they deserve to be loved, protected, and cared for.
I want to tell you why I think it's up to every woman to decide for herself whether she wants a child or not, because NONE of the women make that decision lightly. There is often a lot of hardship and fear behind it.
Let us take my mother as an example.
Shortly after the end of World War II, she was raped by several dark-skinned French soldiers. She became pregnant, was not allowed to have an abortion, because in the Adenauer era this was forbidden. My sister was born. My mother could not give her love, neglected and often beat her for no occasion.
Years later, she met my "father," a GI from Idaho. She loved him, but he just wanted sex, and he left her when she got pregnant with me. My mother also wanted to abort me. It was forbidden to her.
I too was neglected and beaten, and my sister and I did not get any love. As a result, we were both unable to give or receive love.
From my point of view, it would have been better if my mother could have aborted both of us.
By the way, no quote from the Bible says that abortion would be forbidden. And what is not explicitly forbidden (by Bible or state law) is allowed.
Not a lie, but based on biblical scientific knowledge. Buy or borrow kittel's book series. It is called the "Theological Dictionary of the New Testament" and consists of 10 volumes. Here is the link to the purchase option:
https://www.amazon.com/Theological-Dictionary-New-Testament-Abridged/dp/0802824048
You quoted Leviticus. Do you even know what the word "abomination" means? Here is a little tutoring:
In the Hebrew language, "abomination (in German "Greuel")" is translated as "Toevah" (תֹּועֵבָה), which means that God abhors something, something that is unclean. Thus, this refers to a ritual impurity, not a moral sin, which would have to be translated as Hebrew "Zimah". The Septuagint correctly translates the word abomination with the word "bdelygma," which describes a ritual impurity, not "anomia," which stands for transgression and sin. Thus, a woman who menstruated, also called an abomination, is called unclean, and she was not allowed to enter the temple in this state, but she was not sinful because of it. Toevah is also often used to describe idolatry
For Jews, then as now, homosexuality has something to do with ritual purity, and by no means anything to do with sexuality, in relation to these two scriptures. These verses are part of the ceremonial law, not the moral law, which is also evident in the context of these two chapters. It was primarily a guideline for Jews, especially Priests/Levites.
Kittel proved in his book series that the Biblical quotations in 1. Corinthians and Timothy, who supposedly describe active and passive homosexuality, mean otherwise. Here is my summary from Kittel's book:
The two words intended to describe homosexuality are translated by Luther as "catamite" (Greek: Malakoi) and "Boy Abuser" (Greek: Arsenokoitai).
The King James version, the Bible available to all English-speaking Christians, translates Malakoi with homosexuals, which can't really have the meaning, because the word homosexuality only appeared at the end of the 19th century. Previously, it was believed that this word derives from "malakee", which means "masturbation". It was only when enlightened people realized that masturbation is not a sin, but has a useful function, that homosexuality was spoken of as meaning for this word. But what exactly did Paul mean by the word? No one knows. Elsewhere in the Bible, this word Malakoi is also used for people who are:
Soft, sicky, fig, tender/gentle, debauchery, or unreliable. It is needed for people who are undisciplined and morally weak, incapable of moral integrity and self-control, but nowhere is it placed in a sexual context.
But what does "Arsenokoitai" mean? English Bibles translate the word to "Sodomites", a word that used to be used incorrectly for homosexuals.
It is assumed that this word is composed of two words, "man" and "bed", where Bett was often the term for sex. However, it is not clear how the connection to the word "man" was seen. Was he an object or subject?
And it was not spoken by men, but ur a man. Was the man in bed with a woman or another man? Here's a small look at the word arsenokoitoi, as used by extra-bib authors:
The Philosph Philo used it around 35 A.D. to describe temple prostitution ((Philo, The Special Laws, III, VII, 40-42). Also in the 2nd century AD (Apology of Aristides, chapters 9 and 13).
In the 6th century, the then Patriarch of Constantinople, John Jejunator, wrote about anal intercourse between spouses, where this word was also used:
"In fact, many men even commit the sin of homosexuality with their wives." (Patrologiae cursus completus, Series Graeca, 88:1893-96)
As I said, only in the 6th century, the word Arsenokoitoi was equated with homosexuality, which was understood to mean anal intercourse (also with women).
Some scholars believe that Paul created a name to refer to the customers of "the soft callboys." We could call them "dirty old men."
Others translate the word as "homosexuals," but never explained what that meant. In 1958, for the first time in history, a person translated this mysterious Greek word into English, and decided that it meant homosexuals, a word that does not exist in Hebrew or Greek. But this translator made the decision for all of us who put the word homosexual in the English-language Bible for the very first time.
In the past, people used Paul's writings to support slavery, segregation, and racial segregation. People still use Paul's writings to oppress women and limit their roles in the house, in the Church, and in society. Now we have to ask ourselves, "Is it happening again?" Is a word in Greek that does not have a clear definition used to reflect prejudices of society and to condemn the homosexual children of God?
