Did God make them eat the flesh of their sons?

tonychanyt

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Moses prophesied in Deuteronomy 28:

53 And you shall eat the fruit of your womb, the flesh of your sons and daughters, whom the LORD your God has given you, in the siege and in the distress with which your enemies shall distress you.
It was fulfilled in 2 Kings 6:

29 So we boiled my son and ate him, and the next day I said to her, 'Give up your son, that we may eat him.' But she had hidden her son.
Did they boil a son and eat him on their own decisions?

Yes.

Concerning the people under siege in Jerusalem, the Lord promised Jeremiah in (NKJV) 19:

I will cause them to eat the flesh of their sons and the flesh of their daughters, and everyone shall eat the flesh of his friend in the siege and in the desperation with which their enemies and those who seek their lives shall drive them to despair.
English Standard Version:

I will make them eat the flesh of their sons and their daughters.
Did God make or cause them to eat the flesh of their sons?

Yes.

Lamentations 10 confirmed it:

10 The hands of compassionate women have boiled their own children; they became their food during the destruction of the daughter of my people.
Did God make them boil and eat their own children or did they do that of their own volition?

Both are true. This is an example of Co-Reality.
 

BobRyan

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Did God make or cause them to eat the flesh of their sons?

Yes.

Lamentations 10 confirmed it:


Did God make them boil and eat their own children or did they do that of their own volition?

Both are true. This is an example of Co-Reality.
You did not show a text from Lamentations that has God saying "I made or caused them to eat the flesh of their sons"
 
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AlexB23

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Moses prophesied in Deuteronomy 28:


It was fulfilled in 2 Kings 6:


Did they boil a son and eat him on their own decisions?

Yes.

Concerning the people under siege in Jerusalem, the Lord promised Jeremiah in (NKJV) 19:


English Standard Version:


Did God make or cause them to eat the flesh of their sons?

Yes.

Lamentations 10 confirmed it:


Did God make them boil and eat their own children or did they do that of their own volition?

Both are true. This is an example of Co-Reality.
In all three cases, the texts describe situations where people were forced to resort to cannibalism due to extreme famine and desperation caused by military sieges. The texts do not indicate that God directly caused the people to eat their own children or boil them, but rather that these actions were a result of the dire circumstances and desperation brought about by their enemies.

Therefore, it is accurate to say that God did not make them eat or boil their children on their own decisions, but rather the extreme conditions forced them to take such drastic measures.

It's important to note that the Bible condemns cannibalism and considers it an abomination (Leviticus 18:20, 19:26, Deuteronomy 14:3). These texts serve as a reminder of the depths to which people can be driven by desperation and the horrors of war.
 
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AlexB23

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Did you read the OP?
I did read the OP, and it seemed that the post was insinuating that God caused people to eat their babies, when it was probably severe famine that made people go crazy and eat their children.
 
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AlexB23

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Jeremiah 19: I will cause them to eat the flesh of their sons and the flesh of their daughters
So, why does Jeremiah 19 conflict with the teachings of Leviticus 18:20, and Deuteronomy 14:3?
 
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AlexB23

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Can you show me the conflicting propositions?
Well, Deut 14:3 talked about not eating anything abominable. The OT is a mess, hence why I avoid it. The NT is where the good stuff is.

Also, Whoever sheds human blood, by humans shall their blood be shed; for in the image of God has God made mankind” (Genesis 9:6).

Here is an article about this heavy topic: What does the Bible say about cannibalism? Is there cannibalism in the Bible? | GotQuestions.org

And a summary:
The article discusses the biblical perspective on cannibalism, which is viewed as a terrible evil and a curse. After the global flood, God allowed Noah and his descendants to eat meat but explicitly forbade consuming human flesh (Genesis 9:3-6). Throughout the Bible, cannibalism is mentioned as a sign of extreme desperation and spiritual apostasy (Leviticus 26:29; Deuteronomy 28:53-57; Jeremiah 19:9; Lamentations 2:20; 4:10; Ezekiel 5:10).

The article notes that some pagan cultures have practiced cannibalism as part of religious rituals or superstitions, but these practices have no biblical justification. The Bible teaches that the spirit does not remain in the body after death (2 Corinthians 5:8; Luke 16:19-26; Revelation 20:11-15).

The article also considers the ethical dilemma of cannibalism in extreme circumstances, such as survival situations. Although there have been documented instances of "survival cannibalism," the article suggests that even in the direst circumstances, cannibalism should not be considered due to the Bible's negative portrayal of the practice.

Anyways, happy Easter brother. I am signing off for the night and going to the Easter service.
 
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BBAS 64

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In all three cases, the texts describe situations where people were forced to resort to cannibalism due to extreme famine and desperation caused by military sieges. The texts do not indicate that God directly caused the people to eat their own children or boil them, but rather that these actions were a result of the dire circumstances and desperation brought about by their enemies.

Therefore, it is accurate to say that God did not make them eat or boil their children on their own decisions, but rather the extreme conditions forced them to take such drastic measures.

It's important to note that the Bible condemns cannibalism and considers it an abomination (Leviticus 18:20, 19:26, Deuteronomy 14:3). These texts serve as a reminder of the depths to which people can be driven by desperation and the horrors of war.
Good day, Alex

Was God in full control of those extreme conditions....?

What is your view of primary and secondary causality?


In Him,

Bill
 
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