In Job 1:1-2:13 one can see the story of how Satan, along with the sons of God, appeared in heaven before God. God, during a conversation with Satan, brings up his servant Job, asking Satan if he has considered him. Satan asks if Job fears God for naught, and says further that God has put a hedge about him, his house, and all that he has on every side. Satan says to God that if He will put forth His hand and smite him, that Job will curse God to His face. God replies to Satan that Job is in his power, but says that he cannot take Job's life. Satan then goes forth from the presence of the Lord and smites all that Job has (lands, possessions, children). Later, Satan is again given permission to personally smite Job with boils.
If someone were to say that they wished they could get out from behind jail bars so that they might harm someone, seeing that the bars were keeping them from attacking and harming that person, opening the jail cell would make one indirectly responsible for that man being harmed by the man who was in the jail cell, would it not?
So, in a similiar way, when God 'opened the jail cell' for Satan to get at Job, He indirectly caused Job to lose all that he had, including his children, and later indirectly caused Job to be smitten with boils. God was the One who initially brought up Job, in fact, asking Satan if he had considered his servant Job. God even knew that Satan was going to ask if Job served God for naught, and everthing else that Satan was going to ask or say concerning Job.
A.) Satan said that if God would smite Job, that Job would curse God to His face. B.) God allowed Satan to get at Job, in the same way that a man opening a jail cell would allow a man who wanted to harm another man to have access to that man. C.) Therefore, just as the man who opened the jail cell is indirectly responsible for that man being harmed by the man who was in the jail cell, so God was indirectly responsible for Job being attacked by Satan.
I imagine that similiar things have happened throughout the pages of history (we are given a glimpse into the dealings of God in the book of Job), and I imagine that similiar things even happen up until now. Job's Poverty (remember Job losing all his possessions?), sickness (remember Job's boils?), Job's loss of children, were all indirectly caused by God. God caused the hedge that He had placed around Job to be removed.
We can see in the Bible (in the case of David) where David said that previously he strayed from God, but when God socked it to him (afflicted him), or allowed David to be afflicted, that afterward David kept His word.
Can God indirectly or directly bless someone? Absolutely. We must remember that God does both sides of the equation. He can directly or indirectly cause blessings, and can directly or indirectly cause sickness, poverty, sufferings and afflictions (as with David). This goes for everyone, whether they are or aren't His children.
If someone were to say that they wished they could get out from behind jail bars so that they might harm someone, seeing that the bars were keeping them from attacking and harming that person, opening the jail cell would make one indirectly responsible for that man being harmed by the man who was in the jail cell, would it not?
So, in a similiar way, when God 'opened the jail cell' for Satan to get at Job, He indirectly caused Job to lose all that he had, including his children, and later indirectly caused Job to be smitten with boils. God was the One who initially brought up Job, in fact, asking Satan if he had considered his servant Job. God even knew that Satan was going to ask if Job served God for naught, and everthing else that Satan was going to ask or say concerning Job.
A.) Satan said that if God would smite Job, that Job would curse God to His face. B.) God allowed Satan to get at Job, in the same way that a man opening a jail cell would allow a man who wanted to harm another man to have access to that man. C.) Therefore, just as the man who opened the jail cell is indirectly responsible for that man being harmed by the man who was in the jail cell, so God was indirectly responsible for Job being attacked by Satan.
I imagine that similiar things have happened throughout the pages of history (we are given a glimpse into the dealings of God in the book of Job), and I imagine that similiar things even happen up until now. Job's Poverty (remember Job losing all his possessions?), sickness (remember Job's boils?), Job's loss of children, were all indirectly caused by God. God caused the hedge that He had placed around Job to be removed.
We can see in the Bible (in the case of David) where David said that previously he strayed from God, but when God socked it to him (afflicted him), or allowed David to be afflicted, that afterward David kept His word.
Can God indirectly or directly bless someone? Absolutely. We must remember that God does both sides of the equation. He can directly or indirectly cause blessings, and can directly or indirectly cause sickness, poverty, sufferings and afflictions (as with David). This goes for everyone, whether they are or aren't His children.