To everyone so far on this thread: You are missing a lot in your explanation and a lot more can be said:
Matthew 27:46 is often used as a “proof text” scripture to show: God left Christ while on the cross because Christ had become this sinful person or something like that, but that is not what Matt. 27:46 is supporting and is actually supporting just the opposite.
Matt: 27:46 About three in the afternoon Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” (which means “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”).
First off: to interpret any scripture you have to keep 5 things in mind: context, context, context, context and context.
The first contexts to remember is this is said at a particular time, particular place, to a particular audience and by Jesus.
What is being said, or asked, just before Jesus said this statement?
Matt 27: 41 In the same way the chief priests, the teachers of the law and the elders mocked him. 42 “He saved others,” they said, “but he can’t save himself! He’s the king of Israel! Let him come down now from the cross, and we will believe in him. 43 He trusts in God. Let God rescue him now if he wants him, for he said, ‘I am the Son of God.’”
Mark 15:31 In the same way the chief priests and the teachers of the law mocked him among themselves. “He saved others,” they said, “but he can’t save himself! 32 Let this Messiah, this king of Israel, come down now from the cross, that we may see and believe.”
Did Jesus always give the very best answers to the questions of the Temple leaders?
Even when Jesus was brought before the temple leaders and was accused by false witness and was silent was that not the very best answer he could give at the time?
Did Jesus often use scripture and/or logic to answer the questions of the temple leaders?
In Matthew, Christ used the Hebrew word “Eli” (God), but who at that time and place would know Hebrew?
This is late in the crucifixion, so Christ would have little breath left, so how could He direct these temple leaders to a chapter that would scare them into saying no more since the OT was not numbered? (would the first verse be enough for Old Testament Scholars?
Jesus always refers to God as His “Father”, but here he calls him “God”, but if Jesus had said “Father, Father” he would not be quoting Psalms 22, so did He call Him “God, God” to quote Psalms 22?
If the Temple leaders did realize Jesus was quoting Psalms 22 and remembered what Psalms 22 said, what would be their reaction?
Is Psalms 22 a diatribe question (kind of imaginary debate with both sides being presented and the first side being wrong), because the right answer to why did you leave me is God did not leave him by Psalms 22?
I am out of time but maybe later we can go into why Mark used the Arabic “Eloi, Eloi”?