• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

Deuterocanon / Apocrypha

abacabb3

Newbie
Jul 14, 2013
3,217
564
✟91,561.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
I'm in the middle of watching a James White debate on the Deuterocanon, I have listened to another, plus I have read the liberal commentaries on them from the Harper Collins Study Bible NRSV. I have read through them at least once (I do not think I read through Jesus of Sirach twice, or Wisdom, though I might've I can't remember.)

From a historical and interpretive viewpoint they don't "feel" canonical, nor do they appear to generally make the claim. However, I don't find anything heretical taken within the proper context and the works are useful for understanding inter-testmental Israel, so why is there the big to-do?

Thanks!
 

moonbeam

Senior Member
Site Supporter
Jul 16, 2004
1,637
66
✟67,699.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Calvinist
The question is based upon what authority are they not inspired by the Spirit?


They may be inspired by the spirit…of someone who is filled with the Spirit.

But that doesn't make them "God breathed out"…the requirement for scripture by the Spirit.

Is the Church of the living God guided into all truth by the Spirit of Truth?

Than there is your answer regards the Authority…who affirms and confirms…and thereby rejects (by default)

.

.
 
Upvote 0

AMR

Presbyterian (PCA) - Bona Fide Reformed
Jun 19, 2009
6,717
913
Chandler, Arizona
Visit site
✟219,428.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Presbyterian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
From the WCF we see that such extra-biblical works can be useful as can other human works:

Chapter 1:

3. The books commonly called Apocrypha, not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of the Scripture, and therefore are of no authority in the Church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than other human writings. (Luke 24:27, 44, Rom. 3:2, 2 Pet. 1:21)

Shaw's exposition of the same:

The books commonly called Apocrypha, were never admitted into the list of canonical books, until the Council of Trent, at its fourth session, 1546, placed them in the same rank with the inspired writings. They are rejected by the Protestant Churches for the following reasons:–The Jews, to whom the oracles of God were committed, and who were never blamed for unfaithfulness to their trust, never acknowledged these books to be of divine authority. They were not written in the Hebrew, but in the Greek language, and the authors of them were posterior to Malachi, in whom, according to the universal testimony of the Jews, the spirit of prophecy ceased. No part of these books is quoted by Christ or his apostles, nor a single word found in all the New Testament from which it can be inferred that such books were in existence. These books contain many things erroneous, superstitious, and immoral; and some of the writers, instead of advancing a claim to inspiration, acknowledge their own weakness, and apologise for their defects. The Church of England, though she does not receive the apocryphal books as canonical Scripture, and therefore does not "apply them to establish any doctrine," yet she directs certain portions of them to be read in the church, "for example of life, and instruction of manners." Now, as these portions are read promiscuously with the lessons taken from the canonical books, and no notice is given to the people that they are selected from the Apocrypha, they are in reality undistinguished from the inspired writings; and however good and instructive these apocryphal lessons may be, it never can be justified that they should thus be put on a level with the Word of God.
 
Upvote 0

abacabb3

Newbie
Jul 14, 2013
3,217
564
✟91,561.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Most people who have been saved throughout history until a few hundred years ago were part of churches that accepted the deuterocanon. So yes, most of the Church, made up of nothing but EO and RCC (arguable if AO can be saved given their Christology, but we can include them) accepted the Deuterocanon.
 
Upvote 0

moonbeam

Senior Member
Site Supporter
Jul 16, 2004
1,637
66
✟67,699.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Calvinist
Most people who have been saved throughout history until a few hundred years ago were part of churches that accepted the deuterocanon. So yes, most of the Church, made up of nothing but EO and RCC (arguable if AO can be saved given their Christology, but we can include them) accepted the Deuterocanon.


Who is saved and who isn't saved...[in fact…not theory]…God will reveal on that great day.

Being certain of my own position…as He would have me be…and having that assurance of Him, by His Spirit, to my spirit.

When in disputation with those who are in disputation with me…[both sides professing that same assurance as they do]…I often close politely with this comment.

"We will see…who stands…and who falls…on the day"


The fact of the matter is this…the 66 books of the Bible is the word of God…preserved by His transcendent providence.

And that is it ………………………...[the end of the matter]

That is a fact…that every child of God…needs to settle upon.


That the EO and the RCC and any other "visible" Church, ancient or new or future, chooses to endorse the Deuterocanon, or The Great Controversy, or the Book of Mormon, or The Womans Weekly…is utterly irrelevant.

They are not "God breathed out"…and are not scripture...and so are not Spirit, or Truth, or Life.

End of story.


PS - In regards textual criticism - Of course I have been puzzled, and baffled, and disturbed greatly by certain things…which did indeed...disturb me greatly, and left me somewhat puzzled, even baffled on occasions…but those days are over.

:)
 
  • Like
Reactions: AMR
Upvote 0

abacabb3

Newbie
Jul 14, 2013
3,217
564
✟91,561.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
As a Protestant, I am not seeing the logic set forth here:

Assertion: Deuterocanon is not Scripture
Evidence: "Church" never accepted them
Objection: Most of the visible church has accepted them
Counter-Assertion: Most of the visible church was never saved, and so what they view as Scripture is incorrect.

The Counter-Assertion is very presumptuous. First, following its logic it would mean that the vast majority of early Church Fathers (outside of Melito of Sardis, Jerome, Origen) who explicitly endorse the books are not saved. Second, it presumes that being saved is a criteria that comes with recognizing the Scripture, which is an assumption that the Scripture does not support.

Rom 3:2 said the Jews were "entrusted with the oracles of God." 1 Cor 11, Jude and 2 Thes 2 speak of holding to the traditions passed down by the Apostles. So, Jews can be unsaved yet recognize the Scriptures, just as unsaved men can accurately keep traditions, but not accept the doctrines that they teach.

So, in my humble opinion, I am not seeing a real argument in favor of excluding the Deuterocanon based upon the Scripture, or the history or the Church. Instead, I see a reiteration of Reformed thought, but without detailing why the Reformers took the position that they did, which is much more relevant.

Being that I believe the LBC 1689, outside the issue of the Sabbath, is a good synopsis of what the Christian faith is, I am not here arguing in favor of the Deutero-canon's canonicity. However, we need to have reasons for our convictions summarized in these confessions. I would like to tease these reasons out.

:)
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

moonbeam

Senior Member
Site Supporter
Jul 16, 2004
1,637
66
✟67,699.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Calvinist
I am not here arguing in favor of the Deutero-canon's canonicity.


Good….than we don't have a bone to growl over.



:)

Last edited by abacabb3; 24th March 2015 at 09:31 PM. Reason: Smiley added to show my attitude during all of this


I like your style.

.
 
Upvote 0

AMR

Presbyterian (PCA) - Bona Fide Reformed
Jun 19, 2009
6,717
913
Chandler, Arizona
Visit site
✟219,428.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Presbyterian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
So, in my humble opinion, I am not seeing a real argument in favor of excluding the Deuterocanon based upon the Scripture, or the history or the Church. Instead, I see a reiteration of Reformed thought, but without detailing why the Reformers took the position that they did, which is much more relevant.

Your own confession would state the contrary.

The position taken by the Reformers is clear:

WCF Ch. 1:

"4. The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony of any man, or Church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself) the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because it is the Word of God. (2 Pet. 1:19, 21, 2 Tim. 3:16, 1 John 5:9, 1 Thess. 2:13)

5. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverend esteem of the Holy Scripture. (1 Tim. 3:15) And the heavenliness of the matter, the efficacy of the doctrine, the majesty of the style, the consent of all the parts, the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God), the full discovery it makes of the only way of man’s salvation, the many other incomparable excellencies, and the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God: yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts. (1 John. 2:20, John 16:13-14, 1 Cor. 2:10-12, Isa. 59:21) "

There is simply no way the inward work of the Spirit bears witness to the Apocrypha as canonical and when you make a claim to the contrary you are treading on serious error. The church received the canon. Any other view starts down the road to Romanism.
 
Upvote 0

moonbeam

Senior Member
Site Supporter
Jul 16, 2004
1,637
66
✟67,699.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Calvinist
As a Protestant, I am not seeing the logic set forth here:

Assertion: Deuterocanon is not Scripture
Evidence: "Church" never accepted them
Objection: Most of the visible church has accepted them
Counter-Assertion: Most of the visible church was never saved, and so what they view as Scripture is incorrect.

The Counter-Assertion is very presumptuous. First, following its logic it would mean that the vast majority of early Church Fathers (outside of Melito of Sardis, Jerome, Origen) who explicitly endorse the books are not saved. Second, it presumes that being saved is a criteria that comes with recognizing the Scripture, which is an assumption that the Scripture does not support.


First - You say they endorsed the books; Did they consider them as canonical? …or did their endorsement fall short of that stature? …thats the issue.

Anyway…the Pope and the magisterium endorse them to the degree of canonical status… I guess thats enough authority… Do you accept that authority? … Why not? … Do you regard your own as superior? … Why shouldn't you? … I regard mine as superior to the Pope any day of the week.

Second - If an individual is not indwelt by the Spirit of truth, the Spirit charged with guiding an [that] individual into all truth… How will they find it? … Also, the scripture states "Thy word is truth" … Where else can it be found? … So than, the Spirit confirms the scripture to be true; and the scripture confirms the Spirit to be the only guide and interpreter… They [both] attest to each others authenticity and authority.


Rom 3:2 said the Jews were "entrusted with the oracles of God." 1 Cor 11, Jude and 2 Thes 2 speak of holding to the traditions passed down by the Apostles. So, Jews can be unsaved yet recognize the Scriptures, just as unsaved men can accurately keep traditions, but not accept the doctrines that they teach.


The "oracles of God" i.e. the word of God [Holy scripture] is just that… it is His word [not mine or yours]

Jesus said that the scripture can not be broken… Do you believe that?

Jesus said that the scripture can not be broken… Did He forget to mention that it could be lost or distorted because of unsaved Jews or Gentiles? … Or that scripture failed to contain all the relevant information and that there might be some other scribblings here and there which would augment and elucidate the scripture?

So, in my humble opinion, I am not seeing a real argument in favor of excluding the Deuterocanon based upon the Scripture, or the history or the Church.


For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
…[Rev 22:18-19]

This is the testimony of scripture… Can you find a real argument for including the Deuterocanon based upon this scripture?


Instead, I see a reiteration of Reformed thought, but without detailing why the Reformers took the position that they did, which is much more relevant.

Being that I believe the LBC 1689, outside the issue of the Sabbath, is a good synopsis of what the Christian faith is, I am not here arguing in favor of the Deutero-canon's canonicity. However, we need to have reasons for our convictions summarized in these confessions. I would like to tease these reasons out.


You like to read and be informed… so read some more.

From the WCF we see that such extra-biblical works can be useful as can other human works:

Chapter 1:

3. The books commonly called Apocrypha, not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of the Scripture, and therefore are of no authority in the Church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than other human writings. (Luke 24:27, 44, Rom. 3:2, 2 Pet. 1:21)

Shaw's exposition of the same:

The books commonly called Apocrypha, were never admitted into the list of canonical books, until the Council of Trent, at its fourth session, 1546, placed them in the same rank with the inspired writings. They are rejected by the Protestant Churches for the following reasons:–The Jews, to whom the oracles of God were committed, and who were never blamed for unfaithfulness to their trust, never acknowledged these books to be of divine authority. They were not written in the Hebrew, but in the Greek language, and the authors of them were posterior to Malachi, in whom, according to the universal testimony of the Jews, the spirit of prophecy ceased. No part of these books is quoted by Christ or his apostles, nor a single word found in all the New Testament from which it can be inferred that such books were in existence. These books contain many things erroneous, superstitious, and immoral; and some of the writers, instead of advancing a claim to inspiration, acknowledge their own weakness, and apologise for their defects. The Church of England, though she does not receive the apocryphal books as canonical Scripture, and therefore does not "apply them to establish any doctrine," yet she directs certain portions of them to be read in the church, "for example of life, and instruction of manners." Now, as these portions are read promiscuously with the lessons taken from the canonical books, and no notice is given to the people that they are selected from the Apocrypha, they are in reality undistinguished from the inspired writings; and however good and instructive these apocryphal lessons may be, it never can be justified that they should thus be put on a level with the Word of God.

.
 
  • Like
Reactions: AMR
Upvote 0

abacabb3

Newbie
Jul 14, 2013
3,217
564
✟91,561.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Your own confession would state the contrary.

The position taken by the Reformers is clear:

WCF Ch. 1:

"4. The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony of any man, or Church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself) the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because it is the Word of God. (2 Pet. 1:19, 21, 2 Tim. 3:16, 1 John 5:9, 1 Thess. 2:13)

That only reiterates what the Confession say, but does not answer why the Confession says what it says. I believe Moonbeam has went into more detail, but merely reiterating the Confession actually does not explain why the Reformers arrived to their conclusion.

If it helps, let me rephrase the question how do we know the Canon is from God and the Deuterocanon is not?

There is simply no way the inward work of the Spirit bears witness to the Apocrypha as canonical...

Devil's advocate: Based upon what? Can't a Catholic claim, "there is simply no way the inward work of the Spirit bears witness to the Deuterocanon as not being canonical..."

So, there needs to be some sort of premise behind the conclusion you assert here.
 
Upvote 0

abacabb3

Newbie
Jul 14, 2013
3,217
564
✟91,561.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
First - You say they endorsed the books; Did they consider them as canonical? …or did their endorsement fall short of that stature? …thats the issue.

I totally agree here. The fact they are called "the second canon" heavily mitigates them being equivalent to Scripture anyhow. There are certain Fathers, like Augustine, that explicitly and unreservedly defend their full canonicity. From my reading, most don't reject them outright, but I do "sense" a qualified acceptance, a qualification you don't see pertaining to real Scripture.

I regard mine as superior to the Pope any day of the week.

Why? A broken clock is right twice a day.

So than, the Spirit confirms the scripture to be true; and the scripture confirms the Spirit to be the only guide and interpreter… They [both] attest to each others authenticity and authority.

If those with the Spirit are the only ones that have confirmation to the authority of Scripture, how can I confirm who really has the Spirit being that anyone can make the claim?


Jesus said that the scripture can not be broken… Do you believe that?

Of course.

This is the testimony of scripture… Can you find a real argument for including the Deuterocanon based upon this scripture?

Sure. The claim is that they are "legit" Jewish Scriptures that would be included under 2 Tim 3:16.

You like to read and be informed… so read some more.

See my reply to AMR.
 
Upvote 0

AMR

Presbyterian (PCA) - Bona Fide Reformed
Jun 19, 2009
6,717
913
Chandler, Arizona
Visit site
✟219,428.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Presbyterian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
If it helps, let me rephrase the question how do we know the Canon is from God and the Deuterocanon is not?
Asked and answered above:

WCF Ch. 1:

"4. The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony of any man, or Church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself) the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because it is the Word of God. (2 Pet. 1:19, 21, 2 Tim. 3:16, 1 John 5:9, 1 Thess. 2:13)

5. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverend esteem of the Holy Scripture. (1 Tim. 3:15) And the heavenliness of the matter, the efficacy of the doctrine, the majesty of the style, the consent of all the parts, the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God), the full discovery it makes of the only way of man's salvation, the many other incomparable excellencies, and the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God: yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts. (1 John. 2:20, John 16:13-14, 1 Cor. 2:10-12, Isa. 59:21) "


Devil's advocate: Based upon what? Can't a Catholic claim, "there is simply no way the inward work of the Spirit bears witness to the Deuterocanon as not being canonical..."
A Catholic can and will claim this and many other oddities all day long. A catholic cannot.

Is your position advocated herein one of mere playing the devil's advocate or are you seriously entertaining the notion that the church has received an incomplete canon? Nothing in your posts above hints that you are taking a position to just test the waters as to how the Reformed will answer the claims of Rome. You do recognize that you are in a safe-haven forum with rules against advocating a position contrary to its rules, no?

In the interest of drawing this discussion to its proper close, no matter your adoption of mere "devil's advocate" or actual considérer of taking a position that adds to the canon, Mr. Daniel's treatment below should settle the matter. This includes your contention of finding nothing "heretical heretical taken within the proper context" or why this or that was written in the confession or believed by the catholic church.

THE CANON OF SCRIPTURE
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

abacabb3

Newbie
Jul 14, 2013
3,217
564
✟91,561.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
For those wondering, I am picking the minds of people here so that I can defend the Protestant view of Canon to Catholics. I am seeing presuppositions here, but not a rationale that actually defends why we exclude the Deuterocanon.

I have already gone over a few reasons why I do in this thread:

1. It does not "feel" like Scripture.
2. The book order of the LXX mitigates against these books being considered as important as the other books, according to the early translators.
3. The name "Deuterocanon" implies inferiority to begin with.

Here are a few more:

1. Early Church Fathers were divided. A lack of unanimity is telling.
2. No evidence that the Jews considered them canon (Philo and Josephus never quote them, early Jewish canons, etcetera.)
3. Never quoted in NT.

Asked and answered above...

You did not answer the question, you only reiterated the Confession. You did not offer the rationale.

"...our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts."

What stops a Catholic from saying the Holy Spirit bears witness in his heart that the Deuterocanon is legit? Nothing.

It is important the question is answered or we just go in circles and add nothing compelling to the conversation to bring anyone to our side.

Is your position advocated herein one of mere playing the devil's advocate or are you seriously entertaining the notion that the church has received an incomplete canon?

So, now I am lying? I suggest you answer the question instead of making veiled accusations. In fact, be a man and say what you think then.

You do recognize that you are in a safe-haven forum with rules against advocating a position contrary to its rules, no?

Find a post where I have endorsed the Deuterocanon and if so, then moderate accordingly. If I have not, which I clearly haven't, then why do you speak to me so?

I think you are reacting this way simply because intellectually, you have not offered a defense. Perhaps you cannot. I just offered a defense before my reply to you. I can go into more detail if you like. But you have refused to, for what reason I do not know.
 
Upvote 0

AMR

Presbyterian (PCA) - Bona Fide Reformed
Jun 19, 2009
6,717
913
Chandler, Arizona
Visit site
✟219,428.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Presbyterian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
abacabb3,

I (and others) have offered you the answers inline and I have also pointed you to other content that painfully details answers. On the other hand, you continued to prod and poke, all the while never offering up your own rationale for why these extra-biblical books should be excluded, even going so far to say that you see nothing particularly in error as long as "context" is considered. And now you become indignant when I question your motives?

It is only after all this provocation, that you finally state your true intent: "For those wondering, I am picking the minds of people here so that I can defend the Protestant view of Canon to Catholics. I am seeing presuppositions here, but not a rationale that actually defends why we exclude the Deuterocanon."

Why is it you did not lead with this statement rather than the obtuse tactics up to this point? Do you honestly think your heretofore hidden approach of adopting a contrary view of the canon would not raise the heat felt by those of us who are Reformed in our thinking? I mean, why was there a need to play whack-a-mole games like this in this safe-haven forum where our views should be quite clear?

You have continued to overlook the confessional content provided, claiming it is assertions only. Let's parse some of that content a wee bit more carefully.

"The authority of the Holy Scripture, for which it ought to be believed, and obeyed, dependeth not upon the testimony of any man, or Church; but wholly upon God (who is truth itself) the author thereof: and therefore it is to be received, because it is the Word of God. (2 Pet. 1:19, 21, 2 Tim. 3:16, 1 John 5:9, 1 Thess. 2:13)"​

- The canon is received by the church. Rome has its idea that the canon did not exist until they said it existed and what it comprised--testimony of men about the canon does not mean the canon is non-existent.
- From the very earliest days, Paul's letters were received by believers as Scripture. Paul clearly intended them to be received as Scripture (Gal. 1:1-24), and even other writers thought they were Scripture (2 Pet. 3:16).
Thus, the Scriptures themselves never give the impression that their authority was derivative from the church, or from some future ecclesiastical decision of men.
- See 2 Pet. 1:19, 21, 2 Tim. 3:16, 1 John 5:9, 1 Thess. 2:13


"5. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverend esteem of the Holy Scripture. (1 Tim. 3:15) And the heavenliness of the matter, the efficacy of the doctrine, the majesty of the style, the consent of all the parts, the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God), the full discovery it makes of the only way of man's salvation, the many other incomparable excellencies, and the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God: yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts. (1 John. 2:20, John 16:13-14, 1 Cor. 2:10-12, Isa. 59:21)"​

- Why is the canon received by the church?
--- the heavenliness of the matter,
--- the efficacy of the doctrine,
--- the majesty of the style,
--- the consent of all the parts,
--- the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God),
--- the full discovery it makes of the only way of man's salvation,
--- the many other incomparable excellencies, and
--- the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God:

--- yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, (<--implying the characteristics stated above)

- is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts.
- See 1 Tim. 3:15, 1 John. 2:20, John 16:13-14, 1 Cor. 2:10-12, Isa. 59:21


Now you can continue to claim the above are but mere assertions devoid of rationale, but I must disagree. The rationale is clearly spelled out in the confessional statements that accurately summarize the teachings Scripture so cited therein.

When you review C. Daniel's content on the same topic, you will find detailed discussion of the hyphenated items I list above from the confession. In other words, the rationale has been provided by the confession, and works like C. Daniel's and others are simply providing some evidences behind the rationale.
 
  • Like
Reactions: GQ Chris
Upvote 0

moonbeam

Senior Member
Site Supporter
Jul 16, 2004
1,637
66
✟67,699.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Calvinist
Found this floating around in the inter-net……...along with a few leaves and some twigs.

Thought it would help…..kind of like a quality assurance certification…..sort of ISO-203057 accreditation.




Why is the Roman church so set on making and keeping the Apocrypha part of the Canon of Scripture?

Could it be because so many of Rome's innovative doctrines can only be supported by appealing to the uninspired books of the Apocrypha?

The Roman church points to a passage in 2 Maccabees to validate the doctrine of Purgatory and justify heretical prayers to and for the dead:

"So Judas having gathered together his army, came into the city Odollam: and when the seventh day came, they purified themselves according to the custom, and kept the sabbath in the place. And the day following Judas cam with his company, to take away the bodies of them that were slain, and to bury them with their kinsmen, in the sepulchres of their fathers. And they found under the coats o the slain some of the donaries of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbiddeth the Jews: 90 that all plainly saw, for this cause they were slain. Then they all blessed the just judgment of the Lord, who had discovered the things that were hidden. And so betaking themselves to prayers, they besought him, that the sin which had been committed might be forgotten. But the most valiant Judas exhorted the people to keep themselves from sin, forasmuch as they saw before their eyes what had happened, because of the sins of those that were slain. And making a gathering, he twelve thousand drachms of silver to Jerusalem for sacrifice to be offered for the sins of the dead, thinking well and religiously concerning the resurrection, (For if he had not hoped that the that were slain should rise again, it would have seemed superfluous and vain to pray for the dead,) And because he considered that the who had fallen asleep with godliness, had great grace laid up for them. IT IS THEREFORE A HOLY AND WHOLESOME THOUGHT TO PRAY FOR THE DEAD, THAT THEY MAY BE LOOSED FROM SIN. (2 Maccabees 12:38-46, Douay-Rheims Bible, emphasis not in original)

The RCC's Semi-Pelagian doctrine of salvation by works is supported by two passages from the Apocrypha:

"Water will quench a flaming fire, and alms maketh atonement for sin." (Ecclesiasticus 3:30, Ronald Knox translation)

"It is better to give alms than to lay up gold; for alms doth deliver from death, and shall purge away all sin." Tobit 12:8-9, 17, Ronald Knox translation)

A verse in the Apocrypha can be stretched to support the RCC's heretical doctrine of the immaculate conception of Mary:

"And I was a witty child and had received a good soul. And whereas I was more good, I came to a body undefiled." (Wisdom 8:19,20, Douay-Rheims Bible)

A while back, I posted an account of a "magical" method for selling a house fast as provided by Mother Angelica. Well, the Apocrypha provide other spells and incantaions, among them:

"If the Devil, or an evil spirit troubles anyone, they can be driven away by making a smoke of the heart, liver, and gall of a fish...and the Devil will smell it, and flee away, and never come again anymore." (Tobit 6:5-8. Ronald Knox translation)


.
 
Upvote 0

abacabb3

Newbie
Jul 14, 2013
3,217
564
✟91,561.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
abacabb3,

I (and others) have offered you the answers inline and I have also pointed you to other content that painfully details answers.

AMR, you need to come to grips that you are digging up again feelings you have from another thread (I am presuming the one on Confessionalism). No one else on this thread has accused me of defending the Catholic position, this is something that you have only come up with.

In my first post, I stated my position:

From a historical and interpretive viewpoint they don't "feel" canonical, nor do they appear to generally make the claim. However, I don't find anything heretical taken within the proper context and the works are useful for understanding inter-testmental Israel, so why is there the big to-do?

Several times I have written things like the following:

Being that I believe the LBC 1689, outside the issue of the Sabbath, is a good synopsis of what the Christian faith is, I am not here arguing in favor of the Deutero-canon's canonicity. However, we need to have reasons for our convictions summarized in these confessions. I would like to tease these reasons out.

Now, if you would have read what I wrote at face value, that might have settled it. However, because you expect everyone else to be of the same sort of mindset as it pertains to Confessionalism, you appear incapable in this conversation of offering a rationale that defends the position of the Confession. I should, afterall, just accept what the Confession says at face value.

However, the Confessions are a summation of beliefs, they are not a rationale for all our beliefs. And, in the dozes of threads I have started in Semper Reformada (a few inveighing against Eastern Orthodoxy and Roman Catholicism), I have always offered and sought after rationales on pertinent topics. I have asked for yours and you have retreated behind a Confession and strong-armed tactics into intimidating me with moderation.

Such tactics are not becoming for you and everything you have said thus far do not reflect highly upon your ability to even explain why you believe what you believe.

In my second post I wrote:

The question is based upon what authority are they not inspired by the Spirit?

In response, the answers I have received have been, "Well, the only the Spirit inspired the real Scriptures." Intellectually, you must be able to ascertain this is hardly a compelling answer to the question to someone who does not share our convictions, because they can simply answer the same. So, for the rest of the thread I have been "poking and prodding" so we can get into the evidence that the Holy Spirit has spoken through only the genuine Canon.

...all the while never offering up your own rationale for why these extra-biblical books should be excluded...

-"they don't "feel" canonical"
-"nor do they appear to generally make the claim"
-"the Jews were "entrusted with the oracles of God."
-"The fact they are called "the second canon" heavily mitigates them being equivalent to Scripture anyhow"

I wrote all of these things in this thread before you just made that unsubstantiated accusation against me. You are simply wrong, and I would appreciate an apology.

...even going so far to say that you see nothing particularly in error as long as "context" is considered.

Why is this a bad thing? Baruch defends monergism. Wisdom of Solomon accurately prophesies our Lord's passion. Some of the suspect passages given proper interpretation (not only according to me, but thinkers such as James WHite) do not defend the positions the RCC think they do.

And now you become indignant when I question your motives?

Of course, because you made patently false accusations and even when politely prodded, have not defended what you actually believed but instead overtly tried to intimidate me. You have taken a thread, which was meant to be useful in discussing the Deuterocanon, and have turned it into a litmus test where unless someone adopts an identical mindset as yours, they are "not reformed." Being that I have done nothing here to reject Reformed thought, any Confession, or anything of the sort, you have way overstepped your bounds.

It is only after all this provocation, that you finally state your true intent: "For those wondering, I am picking the minds of people here so that I can defend the Protestant view of Canon to Catholics. I am seeing presuppositions here, but not a rationale that actually defends why we exclude the Deuterocanon."

This is quite simply wrong. I have already stated my intent before that post. You are not paying attention, you owe me an apology. See post 10, I already quoted it in this reply.

Why is it you did not lead with this statement rather than the obtuse tactics up to this point?

I did not anticipate the obtuseness in how the Canon would be defended. I am actually surprised that I am the only person in this thread to offer a rationale beyond "the Holy Spirit bears witness to only the Canon as we know it." I did not have to think I would have to ask a very simple question, "Why can't anyone make that claim, what's your proof that the Holy Spirit so does testify?"

I still have not received an answer. Ironically, I have done the msot to answer the question that I myself asked.

Do you honestly think your heretofore hidden approach of adopting a contrary view of the canon would not raise the heat felt by those of us who are Reformed in our thinking?

It has only raised your heat, I do not sense animosity in anyone else's posts. Nor do I see the patently inaccurate accusations in their replies which are found in yours.

I mean, why was there a need to play whack-a-mole games like this in this safe-haven forum where our views should be quite clear?

Just because you are a mod, I ask you as a Christian brother, do not make reference to this unless I have broken the rules. You should be ashamed because I have quoted in this reply explicit evidence that your accusations are in error. Being that they are in error, and I have done nothing to violate the rules, you should not raise the spectre of the ramifications of breaking rules.

You have continued to overlook the confessional content provided, claiming it is assertions only.

"Continued?" You offered one link in your previous reply. "Continued" implies you have offered outside evidence more than once, which you have not.

Let's put this very simply:

- Why is the canon received by the church? (Catholic can ask the same)
--- the heavenliness of the matter, (Catholic can claim the same)
--- the efficacy of the doctrine, (Catholic can claim the same)
--- the majesty of the style, (Catholic can claim the same)
--- the consent of all the parts, (Catholic can claim the same)
--- the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God), (Catholic can claim the same)
--- the full discovery it makes of the only way of man's salvation, (Catholic can claim the same, as long is that this is consistent with their views on the Role of the RCC. Obviously they do not uphold Sola Scriptura.)
--- the many other incomparable excellencies, and (Catholic can claim the same)
--- the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God: (Catholic can claim the same)

--- yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, (<--implying the characteristics stated above) (Catholic can claim the same)

- is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts. (Catholic can claim the same)

As you can see, I have not "continued" to ignore any of these points. They are essentially summed up as "the Holy Spirit testifies..." but a Catholic can simply make the same claim. I ask you again, I think this is the 3rd or 4th time, why are you correct in saying the Holy Spirit so testifies and the Catholic is wrong?

Now you can continue to claim the above are but mere assertions devoid of rationale, but I must disagree. The rationale is clearly spelled out in the confessional statements that accurately summarize the teachings Scripture so cited therein.

The rationales you have provided are insufficient in the defense of the Deuterocanon to those who do not adhere to the Confession. I totally understnad what the COnfession is getting at. I can "feel" the Holy Spirit does indeed testify. I have said so in the OP. However, how we "feel" is not a compelling argument to those who do not share our convictions.

When you review C. Daniel's content on the same topic, you will find detailed discussion of the hyphenated items I list above from the confession.

I will happily review it when you stop throwing false accusations, apologizing for the ones you have made, and address the issue as to why we can feel secure the Holy Spirit does indeed testify.
 
Upvote 0