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Determining Reality

food4thought

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"You seem to have moved from asking how we determine reality to asking for evidences for our faith" Actually, another poster was saying something along the lines of "we use faith to determine reality" which I disagreed with of course. That began the discussion on faith.

So we really don’t need to pursue evidences for my faith at this time… I’ll respond here anyways and refrain from offering new evidences, or at least ones that do not bear directly upon our discussion. I’d like to continue the topic of how we deal with reality at some point, but for now let’s see where this discussion leads us.

"The universe had a beginning" I'm going to disagree right there. I do believe in the big bang, but I see no reason to believe that the singularity which the big bang came from had a "beginning". I don't see any reason to believe that it did not always exist. Whether or not you believe in infinite contractions and expansions is irrelevant to this point.

Indeed. I concede the philosophical portion of this argument. I remembered after posting this that there was a valid argument against this proof, but couldn’t remember what it was. Sorry for wasting your time. I will add this, though, because I don’t know whether your reason for denying the need for a cause of the Big Bang singularity was the same as mine: the laws of our universe, and therefore our concept of time (which Einstein proved to be a physical property of our universe) is negated, and it is possible that causality loses all meaning at a singularity. So in the absence of time as we know it, the laws of cause and effect, as we know them, cease to exist as well. This seems to render meaningless the question of how long a singularity has existed, particularly when it is the only part of space-time that exists. Even so, the evidence pointing in the direction of a beginning leads a large percentage of scientists to the theory that there was one. The failure of my logical proof does not negate the fact that the Big Bang Theory indicates, even though it doesn’t require, a universal beginning; and this is evidence that supports my faith according to the definition of evidence I post below.

Also, the obvious problem occurs when the "logic" you used to argue for a beginning to the universe is followed to its "logical" end. Obviously, under the same logic, god would have a beginning and therefore a cause; the cause would have a cause, etc. You have to defy the very logic you used to argue a "beginning" for the universe and say that something has always existed. If that is the case, why can't it simply be the universe? After all, there is no knowledge of what state the universe was in before the big bang.

In the previous paragraph I explained that at a singularity the laws of our universe break down, thus negating the laws of time and cause… in the absence of time, beginning and causality as we understand them have no meaning. In a similar way, existence outside of our universe implies the absence of space-time as we know it; thus a transcendent God (one that exists beyond our universe) needs no cause. Before you argue that the Big Bang singularity is a more rational 1st cause than God, consider that the word “universe” is a relatively modern term, and we use it to describe the physical reality that we see and observe. However, recent advancements in science have strongly suggested that there is reality OUTSIDE our visible universe, and thus the Big Bang singularity existed within this reality… The Bible states that God exists outside time (Isa 57:15), and it also states that there is a reality beyond our physical universe [the third heaven spoken of by the Apostle Paul indicates something beyond 1st our atmosphere (Gen 1:20), and 2nd beyond the stars (Gen 1:14-16)].

"Of course by itself it is not enough to bring faith in the God of the Bible, but I think this is something good enough to call evidence, don't you?" No, I don't. What definition of evidence are you using?

evidence v 1. ground for belief or disbelief; data on which to base proof or to establish truth or falsehood, 2. a mark or sign that makes evident; indication his pallor was evidence of ill health

ev·i·dencen 1. A thing or things helpful in forming a conclusion or judgment: The broken window was evidence that a burglary had taken place. Scientists weigh the evidence for and against a hypothesis. 2.Something indicative; an outward sign: evidence of grief on a mourner's face. 3. The documentary or oral statements and the material objects admissible as testimony in a court of law.

evidence, proof - Evidence—from Latin e-, "out," and videre, "to see"— is information that helps form a conclusion; proof is factual information that verifies a conclusion.

I think the bolded definitions are accurate… I also included the contrast of evidence and proof found at the bottom of the page because I think you might be confusing the two. Proof is a stronger word than evidence, and I expect a stronger case to be made to say that something is proof than to say it is evidence. Again I apologize for using the logical syllogism that implied proof, my mistake. Although the idea that the universe had a beginning cannot be proven empirically, there is strong evidence leading a large percentage of scientists towards that conclusion (note I am not declaring unanimous agreement, or even general consensus, here). The Bible does teach that the universe had a beginning, and I stand by that as being something acceptable as evidence in light of current accepted theory.

You are aware that bible passages also describe the Earth as being flat, aren't you?
"Job 38:13 13 That it might take hold of the ENDS OF THE EARTH, that the wicked might be shaken out of it?" That's just my personal favorite, there are others. The idea of the heavens being stretched out hardly equates to a description of the big bang. Even the notion of "spreading forth" the Earth seems to describe a flat object, unless you can tell me how one spreads something into becoming a sphere.

First, you’re taking a hard line literalist interpretation of the Bible by claiming Job 38:13 and similar verses describe a flat earth. I do not interpret the Bible in this extreme literalist way, and neither do the vast majority of Christians. It should be noted that both “the ends of the earth” and also similar phrases like “the rising of the sun” are STILL IN COMMON USAGE as figures of speech. Are you implying that the people who use this language believe in a flat earth and geocentric universe? These phrases are figures of speech utilized to express thought in a nonliteral way, yet still conveying a literal truth (i.e., the sun appearing over the horizon of the earth). Your quotation from Job 38:13 is actually a poor example of what I am trying to convey, since it is more an instance of a failure in translation. The Hebrew word translated “ends” here is defined by the New American Standard Hebrew and Greek Dictionary as: H3671 kanaph; from an unused word; wing, extremity. This word does not properly denote an edge or end, but the extreme parts like the wings of a bird (its primary literal meaning). It was also used for extremities of distance, which was the case in this verse, and time. When used of the earth, it should be translated as “the farthest reaches of the earth”, or the literal meaning “wings of the earth” given for poetic effect. This word in no way teaches a flat earth)... do you think the ancient Hebrews believed in flat 2 dimensional birds? The verse was understood poorly by the medieval church, and translated poorly into English in the 1500-1600’s; even in modern translations this mistake is retained largely due to the acceptance of “the ends of the earth” as a figure of speech we could all understand. Your reference to the earth being "spread out" in Isaiah 42:5 was also a translation failure, this time it was due to figurative language... the Hebrew word translated "spread" was: H7554 raqa; a prim. root; to beat, stamp, beat out, spread out. It was a metal working word used to figuratively describe the making of the earth in those terms. Just in case you were wondering, the word stretched out was properly translated, and it figuratively describes God's work in creating space in terms that would normaly be used to describe unrolling the skins of a tent or stretching out on the ground (lying down).

On a side note regarding God and eternity, I find it interesting that the concept of a Being who experiences no time but exists in an “eternal now” (for lack of better terms) is to us an intellectual singularity… at this idea our intellect and experience break down the same way that our physical laws break down at a singularity in space-time. This is the essence of Isaiah 55:8-9 NKJV: "For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways," says the LORD. (9) "For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways, And My thoughts than your thoughts.” Knowing that the ideas of past, present and future do not apply to God is at times helpful in interpreting the Bible… you being aware of this this may help our discussion if we look at Biblical apologetics at some point.

Sorry for such a long post. I tried to avoid digressing from the topic, but felt that my side notes were, with the exception of that last paragraph, necessary to bring across what I was trying to say.
 
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Ana the Ist

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Guys, I'm aware I'm overdue to respond to the more recent posts, but I'm afraid I have limited time and the posts that need responses are rather long. For any who don't know, I only visit this page on my phone, on occasion, when I get a bit of free time at work. This doesn't lend itself to over-long answers. I ask that you stay patient, responses are coming, hopefully tomorrow. If not then, then soon after, because when Diablo 3 comes out my time will diminish further.
 
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food4thought

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Guys, I'm aware I'm overdue to respond to the more recent posts, but I'm afraid I have limited time and the posts that need responses are rather long. For any who don't know, I only visit this page on my phone, on occasion, when I get a bit of free time at work. This doesn't lend itself to over-long answers. I ask that you stay patient, responses are coming, hopefully tomorrow. If not then, then soon after, because when Diablo 3 comes out my time will diminish further.

Sorry for my long post. I will try to trim down my responses, but I hope you understand that you are raising questions that are complex, and require more than one or two sentence answers.
 
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Ana the Ist

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I have an M.S. from one of America's top 25 universities.


A decent amount. Besides the usual load of high school and college courses that an American student would expect to take, I've read scores of history books covering a wide range of topics. My parents were both history professors and as you might expect, I learned a great deal from them growing up. They dragged me around to many museums and important historical locations on several continents.


I await your explanations.

Ok.
"All of this has come true, and it is remarkable that anyone could predict that a lowly carpenter and itinerant preacher who died in disgrace would be able to make such predictions and then have them come true."
Hard to say for sure that his "message" was taken to every nation, let alone that he has followers in every nation, but I can say for sure that most governments (including ours) tolerate christianity and make no attempt to "wipe it out". Like most prophecies, this one is far too general to confirm or deny.
"All of human history pivots around the life of Jesus Christ."
This is just silly, there are more events than i could possibly post that have nothing to do with the life of Jesus Christ. It's just a blatantly false statement.
"He left behind a small group of followers, yet within a short time the movement known as Christianity became large enough to influence all life in the Roman Empire, and then to form a new civilization that was radically different from any that had come before." (THis one might be considered more opinion than falsehood)
You'll have to be more specific with this one. What is the "radical difference" you're referring to? For that matter, what civilization are you referring to?
"The Christian civilization that formed after the collapse of Roman civilization was the first to have a concept of human rights, to be against slavery, to hold freedom as an ideal, to put legal constraints on governing bodies." What is "the Christian civilization" you are referring to? The first concept of human rights recorded are in the code of Hammurabi, freedom as an ideal was conceived well before Christ in ancient Greece, what "legal restraints on governing bodies" are you referring to? Again, in the code of Hammurabi, legal constraints are put on the justice system so that no citizen can be prosecuted unjustly, this goes hand in hand with human rights.
"The concept of progress didn't exist in civilizations prior to Christian civilization." "Most languages don't even have a word for progress, or a word for freedom either." The ancient Chinese had a word for progress, ergo they also had a concept of it. I dont even see how you could hope to base these statements on anything.
"By contrast, if we look at human history before Christ, we don't see any signs of progress."
Again, this is just silly. The Stone Age, Bronze Age, and Iron Age all began in most parts of the world well before Christ. There are countless technological advances that came before Christ. The wheel, phoenetic language, writing, animal husbandry, and even agricultural techniques that are still used today are some of the more important advances that all came before Christ. Mankind progressed from grunting families hiding in caves to vast empires that were technologically advanced in ways we still dont fully understand (great pyramids). It's not something you should actually believe given your education.
"There was only the tiniest amount of new science and technology, much of it short-lived."
As I said, some of the technology used then is still in use today. From agriculture and architecture to war implements.
"There was no social progress at all. Rome in the year 1 had no more leaning towards human freedom and dignity than civilizations had two millenia earlier."
We can actually observe social progress in the writings and histories kept in that time. "No social progress at all" is a statement that I can refute simply by showing that a legal system was created for determining the innocence and guilt of the accused.
"He did not just cause a certain amount of progress to occur, but ushered in the sort of civilization where progress can occur."
What "sort of civilization are you giving him credit for? How are you connecting his life to these massive changes you are claiming happened?
How can you hope to show these changes wouldn't have occured if Jesus had not existed?

Honestly I'm not sure what you're trying to get at here. With your education, you know as well as anyone that those statements are false. I'm guessing you have some point to follow this, I'm just not sure what it is.
 
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Ana the Ist

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Do you have any evidence to back up this claim?


Do you have any evidence to back up this claim?


Well, I've never said that authority should be the only, or even primary, method for determining reality. I've merely said that it's a method for determing reality, and you've agreed.


The point was that despite your obvious belief that you know a whole lot more than all of ignorant Christians, the truth is that you're not as smart as you think you are. You've obviously picked up a lot of "knowledge" that isn't actually true. I'm trying to gently suggest that it might be a good idea for you to check some whether the things you believe are actually true.


Okay, so you and I both agree that you and I and everyone else accepts statements from authorities when determining reality. You just say that it's "an extremely poor method for determining reality". But you agree that we all use this method, even if it is an extremely poor method. So then what's your complaint? I believe the claims that Jesus Christ made. I have already laid out my reasons for believing the claims that Jesus Christ made. You feel that this is an extremely poor method, but you admit that in some cases you use the same extremely poor method and so does everyone else. What's your complaint? (If it's that events such as the Resurrection and Jesus walking on water are things that ordinary humans can't do, I've already responded to that.)

Some of the evidence for people believing in a flat earth in Columbus' time was in the link that you gave. (ironically) I do realize that its largely anecdotal but not unreasonable since there are those who believe in a flat earth even today. Evidence for that can be found here Flat Earth Society - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. You can actually contact them yourself if you like, and they will give you a lovely bible-based theory for a flat earth. Quite humorous.

"Well, I've never said that authority should be the only, or even primary, method for determining reality. I've merely said that it's a method for determing reality, and you've agreed."

Sorry, I actually thought you were claiming it was the primary method for determining reality. Are we also in agreement that even when authority is used, logic and reason still supercede it? Do we also agree that it is an extremely poor method?

"The point was that despite your obvious belief that you know a whole lot more than all of ignorant Christians, the truth is that you're not as smart as you think you are. You've obviously picked up a lot of "knowledge" that isn't actually true. I'm trying to gently suggest that it might be a good idea for you to check some whether the things you believe are actually true."

Would you mind kindly removing this statement? I've never said anything to that effect, its a rather blatant ad hominem attack. What "knowledge" have I picked up that isn't true? Is this your idea of a "gentle suggestion"? Attacking someone's intelligence and putting words in their mouth?

(If it's that events such as the Resurrection and Jesus walking on water are things that ordinary humans can't do, I've already responded to that.) <---have you? I missed it. If you're referring to the incorrect historical statements that led you to believe that Jesus is the "most important person in history" I would refer you to my previous reply. Your beliefs are, for lack of a better word, wrong.
 
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Ana the Ist

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First of all, your statement that "the accounts of Jesus after the resurrection have him in two places at once" is flat wrong. The Gospel of Matthew records an appearance of Jesus on a mountaintop in Galilee while Luke records Him appearing in Jerusalem and John does not name the location where Jesus first appeared to the disciples, but there's nothing to indicate that the two appearances in Matthew and Luke were at the same time. That's another example of why you shouldn't believe everything you hear.

As has already been stated in this thread, we've got enough to discuss without opening up the whole can of worms about supposed gospel contradictions. I refer you to this post on my blog if you want to see my thoughts on the issue.

As for whether I've read any works of scholars who study inaccuracies in the Bible, I've read quite a few. I've read several books by Bart Ehrman, copious articles by Richard Carrier (who actually doesn't have any credentials as a Bible scholar, but atheists often treat him as if he did), and so many others that I don't even remember them all. Generally, reading them has left me more convinced of the trustworthiness of the gospels, not less. First, it begs the question of why any scholars would spend whole careers trying to find errors in the Bible. If they truly believed that the Bible was nothing more than mythology, then what would be the point. No one spends a career trying to find errors in the myths of the Norsemen. Second, the errors that they find are few in number and so trivial in their content. Thats tends rather to suggest that bulk of the gospels are correct, if there's so little erroneous material to be found. Third, most of the "errors" that these people claim to find in the gospels are not errors at all. You've already given one example of this phenomenon above, and the blog post I linked to gives others. So it forces me to ask the question, if the nay-sayers have truth on their side, then why are they constantly resorting to this sort of dishonesty.

The fourth reason is simply the fact that those seeking to debunk the bible never tackle many important arguments in favor of gospel reliability. I gave some arguments in post #29, which you did not respond to, and I've never seen any other atheist respond to them either. If anyone claims to have a solid case against gospel reliability, they should be willing to acknowledge and address the arguments that the other side is making.

The point was about accuracy. The bible is full of inaccuracies. If we are to believe any one of the accounts of the resurrection, then the other accounts become suspect. What are you looking for here? Do you want me to start quoting actual passages? Anyone can look this up, its not even really a matter of discussion. It's not like the inaccuracies don't exist, that much is indisputable. The only thing that is up for discussion is why they had inaccuracies, why the accounts are different, and if they effect the story of the resurrection in any meaningful way. If you really want me to post passages, I will, but it seems a bit silly to me for anyone to pretend that they dont exist.

Every argument you gave in post #29 was opinion. You didnt bother to back any of it up with any references or point to any actual facts. Example.
"Biographies, which is to say non-fiction accounts of the life of real individuals, were one such genre, and it's quite clear that the four Gospels are within that genre."<---opinion
"By contrast, most biographies in the ancient world post-date their subjects by at least a century, and often by many centuries."<---why should I believe this? Can you give me a list of ancient biographies and their authorship dates? I havent found any reason to believe this, and I looked.
"Third is the quality of the information and writing within the gospels themselves. They have, by ancient standards, very high precision. They give precise dates and times for when many things happen. They give precise locations. They gives the names a great many characters, many of whom we know of from archaeology. The include direct quotes and many physical details."<---I addressed the precision, and will continue to do so if you really can't see the inaccuracies. All those things you mentioned are either unproven or irrelevant. How can you actually know the quotes are accurate? The dates? The locations? While you may be able to find archaeological evidence that a city or town existed...the rest is basically speculation. Ever read Harry Potter? It takes place in London....which exists! Therefore the quotes, people, and events therein must be true...right?
 
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Ana the Ist

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So we really don’t need to pursue evidences for my faith at this time… I’ll respond here anyways and refrain from offering new evidences, or at least ones that do not bear directly upon our discussion. I’d like to continue the topic of how we deal with reality at some point, but for now let’s see where this discussion leads us.



Indeed. I concede the philosophical portion of this argument. I remembered after posting this that there was a valid argument against this proof, but couldn’t remember what it was. Sorry for wasting your time. I will add this, though, because I don’t know whether your reason for denying the need for a cause of the Big Bang singularity was the same as mine: the laws of our universe, and therefore our concept of time (which Einstein proved to be a physical property of our universe) is negated, and it is possible that causality loses all meaning at a singularity. So in the absence of time as we know it, the laws of cause and effect, as we know them, cease to exist as well. This seems to render meaningless the question of how long a singularity has existed, particularly when it is the only part of space-time that exists. Even so, the evidence pointing in the direction of a beginning leads a large percentage of scientists to the theory that there was one. The failure of my logical proof does not negate the fact that the Big Bang Theory indicates, even though it doesn’t require, a universal beginning; and this is evidence that supports my faith according to the definition of evidence I post below.



In the previous paragraph I explained that at a singularity the laws of our universe break down, thus negating the laws of time and cause… in the absence of time, beginning and causality as we understand them have no meaning. In a similar way, existence outside of our universe implies the absence of space-time as we know it; thus a transcendent God (one that exists beyond our universe) needs no cause. Before you argue that the Big Bang singularity is a more rational 1st cause than God, consider that the word “universe” is a relatively modern term, and we use it to describe the physical reality that we see and observe. However, recent advancements in science have strongly suggested that there is reality OUTSIDE our visible universe, and thus the Big Bang singularity existed within this reality… The Bible states that God exists outside time (Isa 57:15), and it also states that there is a reality beyond our physical universe [the third heaven spoken of by the Apostle Paul indicates something beyond 1st our atmosphere (Gen 1:20), and 2nd beyond the stars (Gen 1:14-16)].



evidence v 1. ground for belief or disbelief; data on which to base proof or to establish truth or falsehood, 2. a mark or sign that makes evident; indication his pallor was evidence of ill health

ev·i·dencen 1. A thing or things helpful in forming a conclusion or judgment: The broken window was evidence that a burglary had taken place. Scientists weigh the evidence for and against a hypothesis. 2.Something indicative; an outward sign: evidence of grief on a mourner's face. 3. The documentary or oral statements and the material objects admissible as testimony in a court of law.

evidence, proof - Evidence—from Latin e-, "out," and videre, "to see"— is information that helps form a conclusion; proof is factual information that verifies a conclusion.

I think the bolded definitions are accurate… I also included the contrast of evidence and proof found at the bottom of the page because I think you might be confusing the two. Proof is a stronger word than evidence, and I expect a stronger case to be made to say that something is proof than to say it is evidence. Again I apologize for using the logical syllogism that implied proof, my mistake. Although the idea that the universe had a beginning cannot be proven empirically, there is strong evidence leading a large percentage of scientists towards that conclusion (note I am not declaring unanimous agreement, or even general consensus, here). The Bible does teach that the universe had a beginning, and I stand by that as being something acceptable as evidence in light of current accepted theory.



First, you’re taking a hard line literalist interpretation of the Bible by claiming Job 38:13 and similar verses describe a flat earth. I do not interpret the Bible in this extreme literalist way, and neither do the vast majority of Christians. It should be noted that both “the ends of the earth” and also similar phrases like “the rising of the sun” are STILL IN COMMON USAGE as figures of speech. Are you implying that the people who use this language believe in a flat earth and geocentric universe? These phrases are figures of speech utilized to express thought in a nonliteral way, yet still conveying a literal truth (i.e., the sun appearing over the horizon of the earth). Your quotation from Job 38:13 is actually a poor example of what I am trying to convey, since it is more an instance of a failure in translation. The Hebrew word translated “ends” here is defined by the New American Standard Hebrew and Greek Dictionary as: H3671 kanaph; from an unused word; wing, extremity. This word does not properly denote an edge or end, but the extreme parts like the wings of a bird (its primary literal meaning). It was also used for extremities of distance, which was the case in this verse, and time. When used of the earth, it should be translated as “the farthest reaches of the earth”, or the literal meaning “wings of the earth” given for poetic effect. This word in no way teaches a flat earth)... do you think the ancient Hebrews believed in flat 2 dimensional birds? The verse was understood poorly by the medieval church, and translated poorly into English in the 1500-1600’s; even in modern translations this mistake is retained largely due to the acceptance of “the ends of the earth” as a figure of speech we could all understand. Your reference to the earth being "spread out" in Isaiah 42:5 was also a translation failure, this time it was due to figurative language... the Hebrew word translated "spread" was: H7554 raqa; a prim. root; to beat, stamp, beat out, spread out. It was a metal working word used to figuratively describe the making of the earth in those terms. Just in case you were wondering, the word stretched out was properly translated, and it figuratively describes God's work in creating space in terms that would normaly be used to describe unrolling the skins of a tent or stretching out on the ground (lying down).

On a side note regarding God and eternity, I find it interesting that the concept of a Being who experiences no time but exists in an “eternal now” (for lack of better terms) is to us an intellectual singularity… at this idea our intellect and experience break down the same way that our physical laws break down at a singularity in space-time. This is the essence of Isaiah 55:8-9 NKJV: "For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways," says the LORD. (9) "For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways, And My thoughts than your thoughts.” Knowing that the ideas of past, present and future do not apply to God is at times helpful in interpreting the Bible… you being aware of this this may help our discussion if we look at Biblical apologetics at some point.

Sorry for such a long post. I tried to avoid digressing from the topic, but felt that my side notes were, with the exception of that last paragraph, necessary to bring across what I was trying to say.

"... therefore our concept of time (which Einstein proved to be a physical property of our universe)..."
I'm not sure this is true. I couldn't find any information backing this statement up. As far as I know, time is still widely considered conceptual, not physical. However, there are other theories regarding the nature of time, I cannot find any consensus regarding that topic.

" Even so, the evidence pointing in the direction of a beginning leads a large percentage of scientists to the theory that there was one."
Well this is true, I just don't think its true the way you mean it. If you mean that most scientists believe the universe had a beginning, and that is known as the big bang, you are correct. If you mean (and I think you do) that most scientists believe the singularity that preceded the big bang had a beginning, I'm not so sure. It is my knowledge that most scientists stay away from this question as its entirely theoretical and without any evidence at all. THere is simply no way to know. I've heard theories regarding what preceded the big bang, but I've never heard any consensus on this topic. The only aspect of this topic I've geard any consensus on is the possibility they are wrong. If you have some reference for this information, please share it. It's contrary to what I know and I haven't been able to find any.

" However, recent advancements in science have strongly suggested that there is reality OUTSIDE our visible universe, and thus the Big Bang singularity existed within this reality"
Do you have a reference for this? What recent advancements are you referring to?

" in the absence of time, beginning and causality as we understand them have no meaning."

Then how do you say something like "god caused the universe" if you believe god exists in a manner that gives no meaning to "causality". Wouldn't god first have to exist in a temporal way where cause and effect can happen?

" Although the idea that the universe had a beginning cannot be proven empirically, there is strong evidence leading a large percentage of scientists towards that conclusion"

LIke those scientists, I also believe in this beginning and refer to it as the big bang.

In regards to the "ends of the earth" quote, have you forgotten that it describes the wicked being shaken from it? It's literally describing the earth as almost a flat plate which the wicked can be shaken from like food crumbs. YOu can claim poetic license all you like, but then you should accept the same explanation for other events like...the resurrection. Just picking and choosing which passages you wish to take literally is a cop out unless you accept the other side of the discussion doing the same. God spreading out the heavens? Poetic license. JEsus walking on water? POetic license. ETc.
 
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Ana the Ist

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Sorry, I meant to post a response to food's writings about evidence. Yes, I am aware that not all evidence proves a fact to a certainty. I know that some evidence suggests the truth of a claim. However, we aren't talking about whether or not your gf lIkes flowers for Valentines day, We're talking about the existence of something you are or aren't willing to base your entire life upon. I assumed (maybe incorrectly) that certainty was what you (as a believer) are shooting for.
 
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I would wager most people accept the dictionary definition of faith. In this context, It is belief in spite of a lack of evidence. While there is an abundance of evidence for the sun rising tomorrow, there is a lack of evidence for any god...let alone a specific god.

I disagree. There is, in fact, considerable evidence in support of a belief in God. You may not want to accept it as evidence, but that doesn't mean it doesn't exist.

1.) Philosophical Argument: - The Kalam Cosmological Argument. - Liebniz's Argument from Contingency. - The Teleological Argument(s). - Argument from Morality.
These are arguments, not evidence. They don't actually prove anything. Each is founded on presumptions that are either unproven, or cannot be proven. I'd be happy to explain each in PM.

These philosophical arguments are a kind of evidence. Not the empirical kind, but nonetheless rational, and sound, and strong. If one grants the premises, the conclusion(s) that follow are as binding and powerful as any scientific proof. To suggest otherwise reveals either an ignorance of the nature of philosphical argument or a desire to prevaricate.

2.) Historical Evidence for the Life and Resurrection of Christ.
This would be something...but I haven't found any. Can you be a bit more specific? Please keep in mind proving Jesus was alive doesn't automatically prove his claims true.

Read "The Historical Jesus: Ancient Evidence for the Life of Christ" by Gary Habermas.

3.) The Bible: - Historical Accuracy. - Thematic Unity. - Fulfilled Prophecy. - Correspondence to Reality. The bible isn't 100 percent historically accurate, nor would this prove It's claims, neither does thematic unity. I'm unaware of any fulfilled prophecy in the bible. Snakes don't talk. People don't walk on water. The Earth isn't flat. Correspondence with reality isn't a strong point of the bible.

The Bible is incredibly reliable in its accounts of ancient times, places, and peoples. Even though it has many times been thought to be in error in regards to these things, eventually it has been proven again and again to be correct. The existence of the Hittites is a good example, though there are dozens of other ones. Of course, this doesn't prove that everything the Bible claims is true, but it does lend credence to those claims.

The same is true for the remarkable thematic unity of the Bible. Its unity doesn't prove conclusively that the Bible is what it claims to be, but it does certainly give considerable credence to the idea. The fact that the major themes of the Bible are so uniform in spite of being written in three different languages over 1500 years by some 40 different authors from widely varying walks of life is nothing short of miraculous!

100 fulfilled Bible prophecies

I don't see why a book purporting to communicate the supernatural to us wouldn't recount supernatural events. Satan masquerading as a serpent, Jesus walking on water, the Red Sea parted, the blind made to see - all these things are precisely the kinds of things you'd expect to encounter in a book about the divine and the supernatural.

Oh, and the Bible doesn't say the Earth is flat.

4.) Personal Experience (myself and millions of others). I certainly can't speak of your personal experience (you haven't shared it). My personal experience leads me to believe there is no god, and we cannot both be right.

No, we can't.

Also, you cannot speak to anyone else's personal experience, because it isn't yours. How can you know they actually experienced god?

How do you know for certain that they haven't?

How can you know it was the same god as yours?

I assess what they claim by God's Word.

How do you discount all those who claim to have personal experiences with gods other than your own?

Very easily. I believe I have a sounder basis for my beliefs than they do.

I'm afraid mere personal experience will never in itself amount to evidence.

LOL! Thousands of courts of law disagree with you!

Selah.
 
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AlexBP

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The point was about accuracy. The bible is full of inaccuracies. If we are to believe any one of the accounts of the resurrection, then the other accounts become suspect. What are you looking for here? Do you want me to start quoting actual passages? Anyone can look this up, its not even really a matter of discussion. It's not like the inaccuracies don't exist, that much is indisputable. The only thing that is up for discussion is why they had inaccuracies, why the accounts are different, and if they effect the story of the resurrection in any meaningful way. If you really want me to post passages, I will, but it seems a bit silly to me for anyone to pretend that they dont exist.
When I debate with atheists, they often try to defend their beliefs with statements like "that much is indisputable" or "its [sic] not even a matter of discussion". Invariably the beliefs in question are not indisputable and are a matter of discussion. It seems your tactic here is to try to bluff your way through the debate by insisting that nobody can possibly disagree with you, even though in reality a great many people disagree with you. It's not going to work. You're going to have to defend what you say.

Thus far you've given exactly one supposed example of a supposed inaccuracy in the gospels; in post 34 you said "the accounts of Jesus after the resurrection have him in two places at once". A quick check with the texts shows us that this claim was false. I realize it's a bit much to ask you to acknowledge that you were factually wrong in post #34, but it means that at this point you haven't posted any true statements about inaccuracies in the gospels.

Every argument you gave in post #29 was opinion. You didnt bother to back any of it up with any references or point to any actual facts. Example.
"Biographies, which is to say non-fiction accounts of the life of real individuals, were one such genre, and it's quite clear that the four Gospels are within that genre."<---opinion
So the genre of a work is purely opinion? If someone says, "The Lord of the Rings is a fantasy novel", is that an opinion or a fact? If someone says "Guns, Germs, and Steel" is a history book, is that an opinion or a fact? The genre of a work is usually not an opinion, but rather a fact, notwithstanding a few examples where a work's genre might be in question. Considering the specific question of the genre of the gospels, I'd recommend the following sources:

Blomberg, Craig. The Historical Reliability of the Gospels. Apollos, Downer's Grove (2007)

Hemer,C. J. "Luke the Historian", BJRL 60 (1977)

Hengel, M. "Eye-Witness Memory and the Writing of the Gospels", in The Written Gospel. Cambridge University Press: Cambridge (2005)

Osbornre, G. R. "Genre Criticism -- Sensus Literalis", TrinJ 4 (1983)

Thatcher, T. "The Gospel Genre: What Are We After?" RestQ 36 (1994)

Hemer notes the following eight factors of the relevant historical period that lead most scholars to classify the gospels as historical biographies:
(1) the existence of a distinctive and rigorous theory of historiography; (2) the stress on eyewitness participation; (3) the importance of interviewing eyewitnesses; (4) the limitation of coverage to material where the writer has privilieged access to evidence of guaranteed quality; (5) the stress on travel to the scene of events; (6) the prospect then (and for us) of checking details with contemporary documents; (7) the occasional insistence on the use of sources for speeches; and (8) the vigour of the concept of truth in history 'as it actually happened'.
Blomberg says:
One may certainly refer to the Gospels as biographies in the broad sense of focusing on one central historical character as the main subject of the narrative throughout. The Greek bioi (also translated as 'lives') ... focused in turn on one great religious or philosophical teacher, selectively recounting events and teachings from his life, often arranging material thematically as well as chronologically and frequently focusing particularly on the manner and significance of his death. ... In short, there is nothing in the consideration of the gospel genre that should lead us to reject the conclusions to which all previous chapters in this book have been pointing, which is that the Gospel writers intended to record historically accurate information.
You accused me of not bothering to back up what I said with references or facts. I've now given you five excellent academic sources filled with historical facts regarding the claim that the Gospels were in the genre of historical biography. Previously you've mentioned your familiarity with many biblical scholars. If you wish to continue disputing the the gospels are historical biographies, why don't you give references to real biblical scholars who dispute the point?
 
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AlexBP

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"By contrast, most biographies in the ancient world post-date their subjects by at least a century, and often by many centuries."<---why should I believe this? Can you give me a list of ancient biographies and their authorship dates? I havent found any reason to believe this, and I looked.
Perhaps you should have looked harder. The largest and best-known collections of historical biographies written in Ancient Rome come from Plutarch, Diogenes Laertes, and Suetonius.

  • Plutarch's Parallel Lives covers a variety of ancient Greek and Roman figures. The book was written around 100 A.D., thus more than a century after the lives of most of the subjects covered.
  • Diogenes Laertes' Live and Opinions of Eminent Philosophers covers the lives of Greek Philosophers who lived mostly prior to 200 B. C. We don't know when Laertes lived but if was after 200 A. D., hence his subjects must predate his writing by at least four centuries.
  • Suetonius wrote The Lives of the Casears. It was probably written around 130 A.D. and covered subjected ranging from Julius Caesar two centuries earlier up to Domitian who died in 96 A.D.
In addition to these, I could point to many lesser-known examples. Porphyry's Pythagoras was written many centuries after its subject. So was Philostratus' Apollonius. So were many others; I could go on listing them all day. The point is that the Gospels, written 30 to 60 years after their subject, are closer in time to their subject than the great majority of historical biography from ancient Rome, or indeed of historical writing generally. If you want to dispute the point, then the question arises: how many ancient Roman biographies can you name that were written less than 30 years after the life of their subject?
 
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AlexBP

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Ana the Ist said:
Honestly I'm not sure what you're trying to get at here. With your education, you know as well as anyone that those statements are false.
This is another tactic that I get from atheists quite frequently: implying that I can't actually believe the things I'm saying and that I must really know that my opponents are right. Au contraire, it is precisely because of my education that I know the things I'm saying to be true.

I'll try to take the topics one at a time. First of all, you ask "What is 'the Christian civilization' you are referring to?" For a great many centuries, since the Middle Ages, there as been a civilization that is now commonly referred to as "western civilization". Until recently it was usually called "Christian civilization" or Christendom. If you read history books from earlier than the past couple centuries, you'll most likely see them referring to Christendom as a civilization distinct from ancient pagan civilizations and distinct from the rest of the world. That's what I'm referring to when I use the term "Christian civilization".

You say this:
The first concept of human rights recorded are in the code of Hammurabi, freedom as an ideal was conceived well before Christ in ancient Greece, what "legal restraints on governing bodies" are you referring to? Again, in the code of Hammurabi, legal constraints are put on the justice system so that no citizen can be prosecuted unjustly, this goes hand in hand with human rights.
There is no concept of human rights in the Code of Hammurabi. The code codifies slavery and proscribes death for anyone who helps a slave to run away. It requires individuals to be punished and even killed for crimes committed by someone else. It allows a man to sell his wife and children and others into slavery to pay debts, and so forth. More to the point, it places no limitations at all on the King. (Here's the full text, if you'd like to read it.) It merely is a set of rules by which the King bosses around other people, and the same is true for comparable law codes from the ancient Middle East. They made it wrong for ordinary people to steal from the powerful, but they deliberately left open the possibility of the rulers stealing from everyone else. This was, in fact, true until recently in some parts of the Islamic world.

Likewise the notion that a man has absolute power over his household, including the power to kill them or sell them into slavery, was legally enshrined in ancient Greece and Rome. In Rome it was called Patria Potestas. (Here's an article about it.) Hence there were no human rights; the vast majority of people could be legally killed if someone else chose to do so. After the rise of the Christian Emperors, Patria Potestas was abolished along with Dominica Potestas, the Roman law regarding slavery. When new law codes arose in medieval Europe based on Christian principles, they were the first ones in history to guarantee rights such as life and freedom of movement to all, to disallow slavery, and to guarantee private property rights such that even kings were not allowed to seize property.

Early in the fifth century, Augustine said this:
What are kingdoms but great robberies? For what are robberies themselves, but little kingdoms? The band itself is made up of men; it is ruled by the authority of a prince, it is knit together by the pact of the confederacy; the booty is divided by the law agreed on. If, by the admittance of abandoned men, this evil increases to such a degree that it holds places, fixes abodes, takes possession of cities, and subdues peoples, it assumes the more plainly the name of a kingdom, because the reality is now manifestly conferred on it, not by the removal of covetousness, but by the addition of impunity. Indeed, that was an apt and true reply which was given to Alexander the Great by a pirate who had been seized. For when that king had asked the man what he meant by keeping hostile possession of the sea, he answered with bold pride, “What thou meanest by seizing the whole earth; but because I do it with a petty ship, I am called a robber, whilst thou who dost it with a great fleet art styled emperor.”
At that time, that was a full and accurate description of government in the Pagan world. Governments did not exist to protect the populace. They existed to conquer, loot, enslave, and steal as much as they could. Christian thinkers, basing their positions on the Bible, introduced the idea that government could be something that worked for the whole population rather than against them.
 
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food4thought

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"... therefore our concept of time (which Einstein proved to be a physical property of our universe)..."
I'm not sure this is true. I couldn't find any information backing this statement up. As far as I know, time is still widely considered conceptual, not physical. However, there are other theories regarding the nature of time, I cannot find any consensus regarding that topic.


I found these links with a cursory search. I was surprised to find the concept of time as a physical property is still even debated considering the many expirimental confirmations of Einstein's equations, but evidently it is. Mathematically and expirimentally, the evidence is exceedingly strong in favor of time as a physical property, and I thought the matter proven.

Time, what is it? Dynamical Properties of Time
Is time a physical property

" Even so, the evidence pointing in the direction of a beginning leads a large percentage of scientists to the theory that there was one."
Well this is true, I just don't think its true the way you mean it. If you mean that most scientists believe the universe had a beginning, and that is known as the big bang, you are correct. If you mean (and I think you do) that most scientists believe the singularity that preceded the big bang had a beginning, I'm not so sure. It is my knowledge that most scientists stay away from this question as its entirely theoretical and without any evidence at all. THere is simply no way to know. I've heard theories regarding what preceded the big bang, but I've never heard any consensus on this topic. The only aspect of this topic I've geard any consensus on is the possibility they are wrong. If you have some reference for this information, please share it. It's contrary to what I know and I haven't been able to find any.

I honestly don't remember exactly where I got this thought... Maybe I was just misinterpretting talk of a beginning as indicating something before the Big Bang singularity. I didn't find a link that gave numbers on pre-Big Bang beliefs; but I found this link showing that a majority (51%) of scientists believe in a god or Higher Power, which I consider to be weakly indicative of belief the universe was created, and a large percentage (33%) of scientists (not just those creation scientists who you would not respect) believe in God, which I think is strongly indicative of belief that the universe was created.

Scientists and Belief - Pew Forum on Religion & Public Life


" However, recent advancements in science have strongly suggested that there is reality OUTSIDE our visible universe, and thus the Big Bang singularity existed within this reality"
Do you have a reference for this? What recent advancements are you referring to?


I was primarilly referring to String Theory, but after thinking about it I feel I should have left out the word "strongly"... sorry about that, I'm always rushing to finish my posts and don't have enough time to really think out my wording sometimes. I am also aware that String Theory has a testability problem. My reference is "The Elegant Universe" by Green. I am no mathematician, but the idea of String Theory attracted me in some way.

" in the absence of time, beginning and causality as we understand them have no meaning."

Then how do you say something like "god caused the universe" if you believe god exists in a manner that gives no meaning to "causality". Wouldn't god first have to exist in a temporal way where cause and effect can happen?

I said "as we understand them". God doesn't need to be in a temporal cause and effect environment to create something in which the temporal has significance. ~insert useful but imperfect analogy here~ Really, though... you can accept the idea of a logical absurdity like an eternal Big Bang singularity, or the magical appearance of this singularity from absolutely nothing; but you have trouble with a Being who is not subject to space-time that is eternal?

" Although the idea that the universe had a beginning cannot be proven empirically, there is strong evidence leading a large percentage of scientists towards that conclusion"

LIke those scientists, I also believe in this beginning and refer to it as the big bang.

See my link regarding scientists belief in God.


In regards to the "ends of the earth" quote, have you forgotten that it describes the wicked being shaken from it? It's literally describing the earth as almost a flat plate which the wicked can be shaken from like food crumbs. YOu can claim poetic license all you like, but then you should accept the same explanation for other events like...the resurrection. Just picking and choosing which passages you wish to take literally is a cop out unless you accept the other side of the discussion doing the same. God spreading out the heavens? Poetic license. JEsus walking on water? POetic license. ETc.

I'm sure you can conceive of people being shaken off a large, roughly spherical surface. It's really a moot point since the portion of Job you refer to is in poetic form. I hope you don't take this type of absolute literal or non-literal interpretation into your communication or you are likely to become confused, often misunderstanding someone's sarcasm or use of a fictional story to illustrate a real truth. Another poster gave you references to show that the Gospels are accepted as biographical, and this link shows that the book of Job is generally accepted as mostly didactic poetry (Book of Job - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia). Wouldn't you agree that a biography and a poem should be interpreted differently?
 
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Ana the Ist

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When I debate with atheists, they often try to defend their beliefs with statements like "that much is indisputable" or "its [sic] not even a matter of discussion". Invariably the beliefs in question are not indisputable and are a matter of discussion. It seems your tactic here is to try to bluff your way through the debate by insisting that nobody can possibly disagree with you, even though in reality a great many people disagree with you. It's not going to work. You're going to have to defend what you say.

Thus far you've given exactly one supposed example of a supposed inaccuracy in the gospels; in post 34 you said "the accounts of Jesus after the resurrection have him in two places at once". A quick check with the texts shows us that this claim was false. I realize it's a bit much to ask you to acknowledge that you were factually wrong in post #34, but it means that at this point you haven't posted any true statements about inaccuracies in the gospels.

So the genre of a work is purely opinion? If someone says, "The Lord of the Rings is a fantasy novel", is that an opinion or a fact? If someone says "Guns, Germs, and Steel" is a history book, is that an opinion or a fact? The genre of a work is usually not an opinion, but rather a fact, notwithstanding a few examples where a work's genre might be in question. Considering the specific question of the genre of the gospels, I'd recommend the following sources:

Blomberg, Craig. The Historical Reliability of the Gospels. Apollos, Downer's Grove (2007)

Hemer,C. J. "Luke the Historian", BJRL 60 (1977)

Hengel, M. "Eye-Witness Memory and the Writing of the Gospels", in The Written Gospel. Cambridge University Press: Cambridge (2005)

Osbornre, G. R. "Genre Criticism -- Sensus Literalis", TrinJ 4 (1983)

Thatcher, T. "The Gospel Genre: What Are We After?" RestQ 36 (1994)

Hemer notes the following eight factors of the relevant historical period that lead most scholars to classify the gospels as historical biographies:
(1) the existence of a distinctive and rigorous theory of historiography; (2) the stress on eyewitness participation; (3) the importance of interviewing eyewitnesses; (4) the limitation of coverage to material where the writer has privilieged access to evidence of guaranteed quality; (5) the stress on travel to the scene of events; (6) the prospect then (and for us) of checking details with contemporary documents; (7) the occasional insistence on the use of sources for speeches; and (8) the vigour of the concept of truth in history 'as it actually happened'.
Blomberg says:
One may certainly refer to the Gospels as biographies in the broad sense of focusing on one central historical character as the main subject of the narrative throughout. The Greek bioi (also translated as 'lives') ... focused in turn on one great religious or philosophical teacher, selectively recounting events and teachings from his life, often arranging material thematically as well as chronologically and frequently focusing particularly on the manner and significance of his death. ... In short, there is nothing in the consideration of the gospel genre that should lead us to reject the conclusions to which all previous chapters in this book have been pointing, which is that the Gospel writers intended to record historically accurate information.
You accused me of not bothering to back up what I said with references or facts. I've now given you five excellent academic sources filled with historical facts regarding the claim that the Gospels were in the genre of historical biography. Previously you've mentioned your familiarity with many biblical scholars. If you wish to continue disputing the the gospels are historical biographies, why don't you give references to real biblical scholars who dispute the point?

Here's a nice page where Dr. Raymond Brown (a catholic theologian) is referenced in several essays (which are linked) explains the historical inaccuracy of the resurrection, geneology of Christ, and basically explains why he thinks the bible shouldn't be looked at as historically accurate. Interestingly, if you read the whole page you'll see he was referenced by the Vatican. The Catholic Church's Response to Our Critique of Christian Credibility - Lawrence Kelemen, Permission To Receive

Dan Barker in "Losing Faith in Faith" does a really fantastic job in outlining the apparent contradictions in much of the bible let alone the resurrection. His experiences as a preacher IMO give him a unique insight into the problems with a historical Jesus.

MIchael Martin has a great critique of the resurrection In "The Case against Christianity".

These, of course, aren't the only scholars who have made arguments against the historicisity of the bible. The point I was making is there are multiple biblical scholars on both sides, attempting to point out inaccuracy, or trying to defend the accuracy of the bible. The irony here is that if the bible were 100% accurate, why is there any discussion of the topic at all? Wouldn't the accuracy simply be apparent? You can come up with excuses for why the gospel narratives are different, but the fact is they are different. That difference does not equate to accuracy.
 
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Ana the Ist

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This is another tactic that I get from atheists quite frequently: implying that I can't actually believe the things I'm saying and that I must really know that my opponents are right. Au contraire, it is precisely because of my education that I know the things I'm saying to be true.

I'll try to take the topics one at a time. First of all, you ask "What is 'the Christian civilization' you are referring to?" For a great many centuries, since the Middle Ages, there as been a civilization that is now commonly referred to as "western civilization". Until recently it was usually called "Christian civilization" or Christendom. If you read history books from earlier than the past couple centuries, you'll most likely see them referring to Christendom as a civilization distinct from ancient pagan civilizations and distinct from the rest of the world. That's what I'm referring to when I use the term "Christian civilization".

You say this:
The first concept of human rights recorded are in the code of Hammurabi, freedom as an ideal was conceived well before Christ in ancient Greece, what "legal restraints on governing bodies" are you referring to? Again, in the code of Hammurabi, legal constraints are put on the justice system so that no citizen can be prosecuted unjustly, this goes hand in hand with human rights.
There is no concept of human rights in the Code of Hammurabi. The code codifies slavery and proscribes death for anyone who helps a slave to run away. It requires individuals to be punished and even killed for crimes committed by someone else. It allows a man to sell his wife and children and others into slavery to pay debts, and so forth. More to the point, it places no limitations at all on the King. (Here's the full text, if you'd like to read it.) It merely is a set of rules by which the King bosses around other people, and the same is true for comparable law codes from the ancient Middle East. They made it wrong for ordinary people to steal from the powerful, but they deliberately left open the possibility of the rulers stealing from everyone else. This was, in fact, true until recently in some parts of the Islamic world.

Likewise the notion that a man has absolute power over his household, including the power to kill them or sell them into slavery, was legally enshrined in ancient Greece and Rome. In Rome it was called Patria Potestas. (Here's an article about it.) Hence there were no human rights; the vast majority of people could be legally killed if someone else chose to do so. After the rise of the Christian Emperors, Patria Potestas was abolished along with Dominica Potestas, the Roman law regarding slavery. When new law codes arose in medieval Europe based on Christian principles, they were the first ones in history to guarantee rights such as life and freedom of movement to all, to disallow slavery, and to guarantee private property rights such that even kings were not allowed to seize property.

Early in the fifth century, Augustine said this:
What are kingdoms but great robberies? For what are robberies themselves, but little kingdoms? The band itself is made up of men; it is ruled by the authority of a prince, it is knit together by the pact of the confederacy; the booty is divided by the law agreed on. If, by the admittance of abandoned men, this evil increases to such a degree that it holds places, fixes abodes, takes possession of cities, and subdues peoples, it assumes the more plainly the name of a kingdom, because the reality is now manifestly conferred on it, not by the removal of covetousness, but by the addition of impunity. Indeed, that was an apt and true reply which was given to Alexander the Great by a pirate who had been seized. For when that king had asked the man what he meant by keeping hostile possession of the sea, he answered with bold pride, “What thou meanest by seizing the whole earth; but because I do it with a petty ship, I am called a robber, whilst thou who dost it with a great fleet art styled emperor.”
At that time, that was a full and accurate description of government in the Pagan world. Governments did not exist to protect the populace. They existed to conquer, loot, enslave, and steal as much as they could. Christian thinkers, basing their positions on the Bible, introduced the idea that government could be something that worked for the whole population rather than against them.

You are aware that western civilizations practiced slavery well into the 18th century right? I can't imagine how it is that you believe Jesus put a stop to it 1700 years after his death.

There is a wide gap between the "concept" of human rights and the "practice" of human rights. The "Code" describes the equality of citizens before the law. Ancient Greece had writers and philosophers who further developed the "concept" of human rights, even if they did not practice them. Your statement was about how "the CONCEPT of human rights didn't exist before Jesus" (paraphrasing) I can go back and pull your words into a quote if you like. So, to summarize, your statement is false. THe concept of human rights did exist centuries before Jesus, even if not practiced. If you want to change the discussion to the practice of human rights, we can, but I'd like you to first acknowledge that your original statement is wrong.

What about the rest of your words? I'm still curious on how you intend to show how all of human history revolves around Jesus. How you intend to show that most languages didn't have a word for progress. How you intend to show an almost total lack of social and technological progress before Jesus. I'll concede your point about the timeline of historical biographies, although I'm not willing to put the bible into that "genre". I feel that no book of myths should be considered a historical biography simply because it contains some actual historical references.
 
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razeontherock

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I realize it's a bit much to ask you to acknowledge that you were factually wrong in post #34, but it means that at this point you haven't posted any true statements about inaccuracies in the gospels.

Don't hold your breath; haters gonna hate.
 
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razeontherock

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These, of course, aren't the only scholars who have made arguments against the historicisity of the bible. The point I was making is there are multiple biblical scholars on both sides, attempting to point out inaccuracy, or trying to defend the accuracy of the bible. The irony here is that if the bible were 100% accurate, why is there any discussion of the topic at all? Wouldn't the accuracy simply be apparent?

No. All you have pointed out, is that apostasy exists.

You can come up with excuses for why the gospel narratives are different, but the fact is they are different. That difference does not equate to accuracy.

Those differences DO equate to credibility, that 4 different authors recorded what they witnessed, and those accounts have been faithfully preserved all this time.
 
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Ana the Ist

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No. All you have pointed out, is that apostasy exists.



Those differences DO equate to credibility, that 4 different authors recorded what they witnessed, and those accounts have been faithfully preserved all this time.

That's a nice opinion, but forgive me if I doubt you would accept that excuse in any other situation. If I were to produce another religious document that contained differing accounts of the same story, would you still claim that story were true for the same reason? As for me, and the rest of the thinking world, I agree with Thomas Paine's assessment in his "Age of Reason"
I lay it down as a position which cannot be controverted. First, that the agreement of all the parts of a story does not prove that story to be true, because the parts may agree and the whole may be false; secondly, that the disagreement of the parts of a story proves that the whole cannot be true.
 
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Ana the Ist

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I found these links with a cursory search. I was surprised to find the concept of time as a physical property is still even debated considering the many expirimental confirmations of Einstein's equations, but evidently it is. Mathematically and expirimentally, the evidence is exceedingly strong in favor of time as a physical property, and I thought the matter proven.

Time, what is it? Dynamical Properties of Time
Is time a physical property



I honestly don't remember exactly where I got this thought... Maybe I was just misinterpretting talk of a beginning as indicating something before the Big Bang singularity. I didn't find a link that gave numbers on pre-Big Bang beliefs; but I found this link showing that a majority (51%) of scientists believe in a god or Higher Power, which I consider to be weakly indicative of belief the universe was created, and a large percentage (33%) of scientists (not just those creation scientists who you would not respect) believe in God, which I think is strongly indicative of belief that the universe was created.

Scientists and Belief - Pew Forum on Religion & Public Life





I was primarilly referring to String Theory, but after thinking about it I feel I should have left out the word "strongly"... sorry about that, I'm always rushing to finish my posts and don't have enough time to really think out my wording sometimes. I am also aware that String Theory has a testability problem. My reference is "The Elegant Universe" by Green. I am no mathematician, but the idea of String Theory attracted me in some way.



I said "as we understand them". God doesn't need to be in a temporal cause and effect environment to create something in which the temporal has significance. ~insert useful but imperfect analogy here~ Really, though... you can accept the idea of a logical absurdity like an eternal Big Bang singularity, or the magical appearance of this singularity from absolutely nothing; but you have trouble with a Being who is not subject to space-time that is eternal?



See my link regarding scientists belief in God.




I'm sure you can conceive of people being shaken off a large, roughly spherical surface. It's really a moot point since the portion of Job you refer to is in poetic form. I hope you don't take this type of absolute literal or non-literal interpretation into your communication or you are likely to become confused, often misunderstanding someone's sarcasm or use of a fictional story to illustrate a real truth. Another poster gave you references to show that the Gospels are accepted as biographical, and this link shows that the book of Job is generally accepted as mostly didactic poetry (Book of Job - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia). Wouldn't you agree that a biography and a poem should be interpreted differently?

THank-you for the links, but I did understand what you meant about time and the beliefs of scientists. My point was that the things you were claiming to be commonly accepted as fact simply aren't. An essay on time, and a Wikianswers page, doesn't create scientific consensus. As you said yourself, when you looked you found there was no consensus.

As for scientists and god, are you aware that link has 10 pages??? I read a few but it never spoke about scientists and their beliefs on the origin of the universe. Does the survey make a correlation between scientists' belief in god and whether their understanding of science led to that belief? I found a survey that stated scientists base their belief in god on religious reasons, not science. Does the survey ask the scientists if they believe god created the universe? THese are the relevant questions aren't they? You can't simply point to a survey that says scientists believe in god or a higher power by a slim majority and then infer that belief in god is based on their understanding of science and that they believe god created the universe.

you can accept the idea of a logical absurdity like an eternal Big Bang singularity, or the magical appearance of this singularity from absolutely nothing; but you have trouble with a Being who is not subject to space-time that is eternal?

Yes, here's why, its a less complex answer. I don't agree (and you haven't shown) that an eternal singularity is logically absurd. I do think its absurd that you would create an infinitely complex being like an omnipotent and omniscient god and somehow claim that he is a more "reasonable" answer. It doesn't even answer the question of "how did the universe begin?" It turns the question to "how did god create the universe?"

God doesn't need to be in a temporal cause and effect environment to create something in which the temporal has significance.

Was there a time before god created the universe? A time when he created the universe? A time after he created the universe?

Wouldn't you agree that a biography and a poem should be interpreted differently?

THis discussion becomes impossible if I have to guess which parts of the bible you believe and which you do not. Do you believe mythical tales should be considered historical biography if they name some actual places and people? Do you believe the bible to be the inspired word of god? Or is it just some stuff some men wrote that contains some truth?
 
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razeontherock

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As for me, and the rest of the thinking world, I agree with Thomas Paine's assessment in his "Age of Reason"

Nice try but I won't let you get by with such

a) error
b) nastiness
c) ad hom

There was quite a bit of "the thinking world," that expressed their opinion on that particular work, before this doubting Thomas ever had a chance to release it. I'm sure you know they scorned the work, and TP died an exiled pauper.

"Lay it down" all you want - you are simply wrong, and empirically so.
 
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