Well then I'm a nihilist too, when it comes to mathematics and formal logic. But I won't be when it comes to reality, lol.
So then we already agree.
Assumptions and definitions can't tell you anything about reality. But observations can.
Your broke it down between the two and told me to pick my poison, I picked language (and won

) and I said I don't care if it doesn't exist in math.
No, that's not what happened. I was never talking about nihilism with respect to physical reality. At least not until I spotted the disconnect that had formed between us.
When I told you to pick your poison, I was referring to the fact that spoken language is circularly defined (every term is defined by referring to other terms), whereas the formal language (mathematics and logic) is defined by referring to primitively undefined symbols.
The
Münchhausen trilemma discusses a similar problem with regards to propositions:
Extending this to language would look like this:
- The spoken language, in which terms are defined by other terms
- The regressive language, in which terms are defined by other terms ad infinitum
- The formal language, in which terms are defined by undefined terms
The second option is never used, obviously.
The position of nihilism, as I employ the term, is as follows:
Mathematics can be accepted tentatively, but is ultimately recognized as a vacuous system of assumptions and definitions. It is nothing but a plea for the reader to accept the axioms so that the conclusions may follow; the reader is under no obligation to make any concession.
Observation of reality, however, should not be considered optional. We are obligated to accept observations as they are.
While it is true that the problem of undefined, primitive notions that haunts mathematics does not vanish when it comes to our understanding of physical reality, science gets special treatment. When I ask "why?" enough times to the mathematician and he ultimately says that the empty set "just is," I can reject his claim if I wish; but when I ask "why" enough times to the physicist and he ultimately says that energy "just is," I am obligated to accepted it because energy really does exist. Energy really "just is."
WLC says the same thing. He even has a nifty little flash video about it.
Even if all possible parallel universes exist, there is no universe in which I am watching that video.
Hmmm.... It's a little different though since pleasure doesn't even exist at all without us, right? Or some subject that can "detect" it. It isn't like an opinion about a thing that exists. Where it exists, albeit only "inside" subjects, it is by its very nature desirable. It's like thinking. I know that it is an objective fact that I think, but thinking only exists within subjects capable of thinking. I know that it is an objective fact that I experience pleasure, and I know that the desire for pleasure is inescapable. Perhaps I can choose one source of pleasure over another, but I am always seeking pleasure. People who have a difficult time experiencing pleasure, have a hard time doing anything. For those people, pleasure effectively doesn't exist.
Nothing you've said here changes anything. "Subjective" means "requiring a subject" while "objective" means the opposite. I'm sorry, but pleasure, desire, value, and similar notions require a subject.
A ball, if it exists, is intrinsically spherical. What if it doesn't exist? Then hypothetically it would be spherical, but it isn't intrinsically spherical.
If a ball doesn't exist, there's no "it" for you to be talking about.
"Then hypothetically
it would be spherical, but
it isn't intrinsically spherical."
What is the
it that you're referring to here? Does it even make sense to refer to something that you're declaring nonexistent?
Let's consider an equation that has no solution,
x=
x+1.
Does it make sense to describe the solution and ask whether it's odd or even, or rational or irrational?
Just like pleasure. If it exists, it is intrinsically desirable.
OK... but it's still subjective, so where does the objective morality come from?
A gold watch is subjectively valuable because some subjects could, at least in theory, decide it's not valuable. Pleasure cannot, even in theory, be undesirable. It just has to exist first.
And to exist it requires a subject, meaning that it is subjective by definition.
I'm going to keep building this theory to combat objective morality through theism with objective morality through naturalism. Poke as many holes in it as you can, it only makes the theory more powerful, muahahahaha!
I don't think it's an honest approach to build towards a predetermined conclusion. That's what Christians do and that's why they're always getting twisted up like pretzels. Start with what is known and go from there with no destination in mind.
If objective morality works through theism, then there is only one objective moral, and that is: "Obey God".
Already nonsensical. God is a subject and is necessary for the system of morality, so the system of morality cannot be independent of a subject.
If God's sovereignty means He can do anything and it's still "good", including telling you to do anything, then anything goes except disobedience. It turns out that there is one objective moral, and everything else is moral relativity based on what God wants from people at the time.
Perhaps tell me what you think objective and subjective mean in this context. Because this is looking like a lot of nonsense to me.
Really? Someone called God "it"? I missed it.
The very first post after the OP.
I do it a little out of respect, but it does make things more clear about who my pronouns are referring. That's the main reason. Trouble is people don't notice most of the time. I had a conversation about Satan's conversation with God in Job, and a Christian thought I was attributing God's actions to Satan's because he didn't notice my capitalizations.
Lol.