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Could Old Testament/Tanakh prophecy be logical in terms of scientific reality?

rakovsky

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The Old Testament / Tanakh has prophecies about the date for the Messiah's arrival (Daniel 9), his death (Isaiah 42 according to Maimonides, Isaiah 53 according to Christians), and the future resurrection (Isaiah 26). The Biblical prophecies and blessings are very appealing, so I would like to evaluate how likely they are to be factually true.

What reasons are there to think they are reliable? I see that the prophets were moral, faithful, and divinely inspired, but does that mean if they make a prediction, it must turn out correct? i can see that God inspired civil rights activists, but I don't know that it means if they made predictions with deadlines for civil rights laws and freedoms to be enacted, their predictions must come to pass.

Another theory could be that there is a real gift of prophecy or foretelling, and that the Lord gave it to the prophets and then guided them in it.

A third theory for their reliability is that the Israelites carefully checked the prophets to make sure that they were the kind of people whose prophecies occurred, and would reject prophets whose predictions failed.

A fourth theory could be that the prophets of ancient Israel were quite wise and gave solid reasons for why one should believe these particular predictions.

In this thread, I would like to ask about the reasons for the prophets' reliability, especially about the reason that I underlined above.

In his article Is Precognition Real?, Ben Goertzel discussed scientific testing on "precognition", the ability to foreknow the future, by a researcher, D. Bem.
Goertzel explained that Bem's tests purported to show a small but significant amount of effect from precognition. He asks "If Psi Exists, Why Aren’t the Observed Effects Stronger?", and then writes:
You may wonder why the results of Bem’s experiments weren’t stronger. Why only 53%, why not 95%? OK, so he didn’t find any experimental subjects who were so powerfully psychic they could predict the erotic pictures almost all the time — but then couldn’t he have set up a different sort of experiment, yielding a stronger effect?

Of course, outside the lab, outside the lab, people have reported many apparent cases of extremely dramatic psi effects. But the long history of parapsychology lab research, going back far before Bem to Rhine’s ESP work in the 1930s, shows that when you bring psi into the lab, it tends to become more of a systematic statistical biasing factor than a source of individual mind-blowing “miracle events.”
...
I don’t believe I have any particularly strong psi abilities myself, but in my everyday life, I’ve witnessed some rather striking examples of psi phenomena involving others. For instance, one day a few years ago, a friend and I were walking in the forest with her beloved dog, and the dog (as was common) ran far away from us, exploring the woods and chasing animals. Then, all of the sudden, my friend said, “She [the dog] is looking at a turtle. I can see it right now as if it were in front of me.”

I was understandably skeptical: “Yeah right. How could you know?” Turtles were not that commonly seen in those woods.

I was going to call the dog, but my friend asked me not to. Instead we quietly looked for the dog, and she was about 100 feet away staring intently at a turtle, which was sitting there peacefully by a stream.

Strange and striking — and like so many other real-life anecdotes of psi phenomena, damnably hard to replicate in a lab.

I’m reminded of another dog story. My Japanese Chin, Crunchkin, once surprised us by showing how well he recognized himself in the mirror. He looked at himself in the mirror curiously. Then he walked across the room and picked up a sock, and stared at himself in the mirror with the sock in his mouth. Then he put the sock down and picked it up again, all the while observing his mirror image do the same. Finally, he apparently concluded the dog in the mirror was just him, somehow, and lost interest. It was brilliant – but I know if we tried to replicate it in a laboratory setting (or in the house for that matter) it wouldn’t work — the dog would run away or act silly or something. One of the general challenges of laboratory psychology is to bring out, in weak but systematic form, phenomena that occur much more strongly, but much more capriciously, in everyday life situations.

Is Precognition Real? Cornell University Lab Releases Powerful New Evidence that the Human Mind can Perceive the Future - h+ Mediah+ Media
^Click on the link above to read a few stories on the difficulty of measuring the phenomena in studies.

Next, he goes into what he calls "Evidence for ESP", discussing the work of Honorton, another researcher:
Under these conditions, Honorton’s experimental subjects were then asked to try to perceive a video “target” that was being played in another isolated room, and being watched by a “sender.” The perceiver was asked to discourse during the session, commenting on the visual images they see in their mind’s eye. Afterwards they were supposed to rate either four still pictures or four moving videos, in order to judge which one they felt the “sender” was watching during the session. The process was completely automated, removing any role for subjective bias on the part of the experimenter.
...

Bem was unable to find any fatal flaw in Honorton’s work. He became more and more interested in extending his research focus from personality and social psychology to psi research. In 1994, Bem and Honorton co-authored a landmark article on psi in the mainstream psychology journal Psychological Bulletin. The article described the results of a thorough statistical meta-analysis of eleven ganzfeld studies. (A meta-analysis involves combining data from a series of similar experiments conducted over a period of time, to come to an overall conclusion.) The result of the meta-analysis was striking: subjects obtained overall target “hit” rates of approximately 35 percent, far above the 25 percent that chance performance would predict.
Is Precognition Real? Cornell University Lab Releases Powerful New Evidence that the Human Mind can Perceive the Future - h+ Mediah+ Media

Next, Goertzel considers what scientific, logical, physical explanations could allow for the possibility of precognition:
But How Can It Be That Way?

Nobody knows yet for sure, but the most likely direction seems to be quantum physics. Regarding precognition, in particular, there is much reason for hope here. Quantum physicists, with no thought at all to psi, are prone to discussing the possible ways in which the future may affect the present (see the recent Discover magazine article, for example.) Strange though it may sound to the layperson, the foundational equations of quantum physics don’t provide much support for the common-sense notion that time only flows forwards.

In 2006, the American Association for the Advancement of Science (AAAS) organized an interdisciplinary conference of physicists and psi researchers specifically to discuss the physics of time and retrocausation. The proceedings were published as a book by the American Institute of Physics.

Quantum theory itself is not understood perfectly, and its equations can’t (yet) be exactly solved except in very simple cases. So it’s conceivable that psi phenomena can be explained by modern physics as is, once we learn to solve and interpret the equations better.
Is Precognition Real? Cornell University Lab Releases Powerful New Evidence that the Human Mind can Perceive the Future - h+ Mediah+ Media

One company made a program called "Intuition Tester" and discusses the value of "USING INTUITION TO SELECT THE BEST BUSINESS OPPORTUNITIES":
A piece of very interesting research on the use of everyday intuition for decision-making was published by Dean, Mihalsky, Schroeder & Ostrander (1974). The research stated (as cited by [Vaughan and Houck, 2000]): "In testing company presidents, Douglas Dean and John Mihalsky found that precognitive ability was reliable indicator of financial success. Eighty percent of highly successful company presidents (who had doubled their company profits in five years) scored above chance on computerized precognition tests … The highly successful presidents said they were using their intuition to foresee money-making opportunities."

This result is crucial, as it links science with everyday, real-life intuitive decisions.
Scientific background
Do you believe that statistic is reliable?

In their book The New Science of the Paranormal: From the Research Lab To Real Life, Carl Llewellyn Weschcke and Joe H. Slate write about a survey of 500 college students who were asked to answer Yes or No to the question:
"I have had at least one experience of knowing, for no apparent reason, what was about to happen or what was going to happen in the near future." 427 respondents answered "Yes."

The authors explained:
In a remarkable instance of the capacity of precognitive dreaming... a psychology professor reported a lucid dream that occurred frequently during his several years of graduate study... a third floor office window opening upon a giant tulip tree with an amicable squirrel scurrying among its branches... Upon ... assuming a college teaching position,... The view from the third floor office he was to occupy for several years was identical to the recurring dream in every detail...
"427 of the respondents [ from a survey of 500 college students] reporting having experienced [precognition], primarily as a simple impression."

Let me also share with you the famous psychologist Carl Jung's explanations of three forms of synchronicity, the third category of which he considered to be precognition:

In his 1951 Eranos lecture[, Jung] offers a definition which recognizes three categories of events to which the term synchronicity can be applied.

The first category includes happenings such as the scarab incident where a psychic event (the patient's recalling her dream of a scarab) and a physical event (the actual appearance of a scarabaeid beetle) occur at the same time and in the same place (during the analytic session in Jung's consulting room).
Here there is indeed simultaneity between the psychic and physical events (Jung 1951b: 526).

The second category includes happenings where a psychic event occurs and a corresponding physical event takes place more or less simultaneously but at a distance, so that the approximate simultaneity can only be established afterwards (Jung 1951b: 526). Jung cites as an illustration Emanuel Swedenborg's well-attested vision of the great fire in Stockholm in 1759. Swedenborg was at a party in Gottenburg about two hundred miles from Stockholm when the vision occurred.

He told his companions at six o'clock in the evening that the fire had started, then described its course over the next two hours, exclaiming in relief at eight o'clock that it had at last been extinguished, just three doors from his own house. All these details were confirmed when messengers arrived in Gottenburg from Stockholm over the next few days (Jung 1952: 481, 483).

The third category includes happenings where a psychic event occurs and a corresponding physical event takes place in the future. Here there is not even approximate simultaneity (Jung 1951b: 526). An example mentioned by Jung is of a student friend of his whose father had promised him a trip to Spain if he passed his final examinations satisfactorily.

The friend then had a dream of seeing various things in a Spanish city: a particular square, a Gothic Cathedral, and, around a certain corner, a carriage drawn by two cream-colored horses. Shortly afterwards, having successfully passed his examinations, he actually visited Spain for the first time and encountered all the details from his dream in reality (Jung 1951b: 522).
Jung on Synchronicity and the Paranormal
^Click the SPOILER TAG above to read about the three categories.

The problem that Jung came up against was the problem of "causality", that an event in time may cause that which comes afterwards, but not events preceding itself in time. In order to address this problem, he proposed a principle of Acausality.
Acausality
[/B]
"The philosophical principle that underlies our conception of natural law is causality. But if the connection between cause and effect turns out to be only statistically valid and only relatively true, then the causal principle is only of relative use for explaining natural processes and therefore presupposes the existence of one or more other factors which would be necessary for an explanation." (Jung 1952: 421)
This 'other factor' is Jung's 'acausal connecting principle'. He believes the above argument to have proved the existence of the principle in 'the realm of very small quantities' (Jung 1952: 421).

Regarding its existence in the realm normal sensory experience, he says:

"We shall naturally look round in vain in the macrophysical world for acausal events, for the simple reason that we cannot imagine events that are connected non-causally and are capable of a non-causal explanation. But that does not mean that such events do not exist. Their existence - or at least their possibility - follows logically from the premise of statistical truth." (Jung 1952: 421--2)
...
Jung's actual argument for acausality involves two stages.

First, he argues that the inability of modern science to predict the behavior of subatomic particles proves that the relationship between the particles is not simply causal but must also involve some element of acausality.

Second, he argues that because this acausality exists in the microphysical world of subatomic particles, it ought also to exist in the macrophysical world of normal sensory experience. Both stages of the argument can be challenged.

It is certainly the case that, in Jung's day and still at present, the behavior of individual subatomic particles cannot be predicted other than probabilistically. But from this fact it does not necessarily follow that such behavior involves an element of irreducible acausality. It is true that subatomic randomness may stem from acausality, but then again it may not. And even if it does, this is not because such randomness itself implies acausality.

The acausal cannot simply be inferred from the merely probabilistic: if event A is followed by event B only seventy-five per cent of the time, this does not entail that B is not caused by A.
Jung on Synchronicity and the Paranormal
Click the SPOILER tag above to see the article's discussion on this.

I took an online precognition test that you can find here:
Free Online Precognition Championship

My results the first time I took the text were:
Evidence for Precognition: Insufficient Data
Correct Guesses Incorrect Guesses
N % N %
7 70.00 3 30.00
The first time I took the test, I used a round of ten questions, with a 50 % chance of getting them right. I answered 7 out of the ten questions correctly, which impressed me. But the test data form said that ten questions were insufficient in number to show precognition. The test wants a larger sample size.

The second time I took the test I answered 50 questions and got 27 right, with this result:
You scored 27 hits - Score of 33 or more suggests precognition
Statistical Analysis: z=0.42426 p=0.671373 Evidence for precognition: None
 

rakovsky

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God's prophets are never wrong. What God has determined will be done.
Can you please write about what basis there is to believe this?

Also, Jeremiah in his book teaches that the prophets can be wrong when they make negative prophecies.

And sometimes, according to the Bible, the prophets are wrong, like when Nathan told David God was with David and so Nathan expected that the right thing was for David to build the Temple but then Nathan came back and said that Nathan made a mistake about that, and Solomon should be the Temple builder.
 
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rakovsky

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God's prophets are never wrong.
What do you think about Jeremiah's explanation that a prophecy about harm could turn out to be wrong in case people repent?:

“Amen! May the Lord do so! May the Lord fulfill the words you have prophesied by bringing the articles of the Lord’s house and all the exiles back to this place from Babylon. Nevertheless, listen to what I have to say in your hearing and in the hearing of all the people: From early times the prophets who preceded you and me have prophesied war, disaster and plague against many countries and great kingdoms. But the prophet who prophesies peace will be recognized as one truly sent by the Lord only if his prediction comes true.”
I think Jeremiah's answer would be that the prophet was not wrong, it was just that God changed his plan.
 
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dickyh995

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What do you think about Jeremiah's explanation that a prophecy about harm could turn out to be wrong in case people repent?:


I think Jeremiah's answer would be that the prophet was not wrong, it was just that God changed his plan.
Well that's rather convenient isn't it? Do you feel comfortable with that as a justification? God changed his plan...isn't he Omnipotent?
 
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Hank77

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What do you think about Jeremiah's explanation that a prophecy about harm could turn out to be wrong in case people repent?:
imho,
It is not that the prophecy would ever be wrong but that repentance is always included in His plan because He is merciful.
Just like the Law of Moses was if/then. If this, then this.....if not, then this. God's prophets know what the choice will be because God knows what the choice will be.
I think Jeremiah's answer would be that the prophet was not wrong, it was just that God changed his plan.
When did any of God's plan not include a period of grace and mercy? It's not that God's plan changes but that His plan includes allowing men to make choices, one of those choices is repentance.
 
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Radrook

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Can you please write about what basis there is to believe this?

Also, Jeremiah in his book teaches that the prophets can be wrong when they make negative prophecies.

And sometimes, according to the Bible, the prophets are wrong, like when Nathan told David God was with David and so Nathan expected that the right thing was for David to build the Temple but then Nathan came back and said that Nathan made a mistake about that, and Solomon should be the Temple builder.
Brings to mind what happened with Jonah and his prophecy concerning Nineveh.
 
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lesliedellow

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What reasons are there to think they are reliable? I see that the prophets were moral, faithful, and divinely inspired, but does that mean if they make a prediction, it must turn out correct? i can see that God inspired civil rights activists, but I don't know that it means if they made predictions with deadlines for civil rights laws and freedoms to be enacted, their predictions must come to pass.

If they were divinely inspired, what they prophesied must necessarily have come to pass, unless the prophesy was conditional. The civil rights activists may have been inspired to act by their belief that all men were equal before God, but they were not directly inspired by God in the way that the prophets were (or the Bible is).

Why does it matter whether God uses natural or supernatural means to achieve his ends? Theology has no need to apologise to science (or science to theology).
 
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rakovsky

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What do you think about Jeremiah's explanation that a prophecy about harm could turn out to be wrong in case people repent?:


I think Jeremiah's answer would be that the prophet was not wrong, it was just that God changed his plan.​

Well that's rather convenient isn't it? Do you feel comfortable with that as a justification? God changed his plan...isn't he Omnipotent?
I think that the issue is not convenience. It works like a warning.

Let's a student has not done their homework for the day and it's already evening and says that they won't do it and they mean that.
Let's say that a parent who knows how this will play out then replies: "You are going to hurt your grades for not doing your homework". The parent fully knows the child's disposition and what will happen, and correctly foresees this.
However, it then turns out that the child, of his own free will then chooses to do his homework with almost impossibly quick speec and on top of it he gets an A, because the warning bothered him.
Would people say that the parent's prediction that the child would get in trouble was totally wrong and that the parent was not reliable?
I think they would say that the parent's warning was reliable, but due to the decision by the child, the future outcome was changed differently than the prediction.

The "plan" did not change - the parent wanted the child to get an A, but he foresaw based on all the information available in the whole world exactly what would happen, and it was only the child's free will with the help of the warning that averted the disaster. The desire was always for the child to do well, the foreknown outcome of the available knowledge was that he wouldn't, and it was only due to intervention that the foreknown outcome was changed.

I suppose one could say that since God is omnipotent, he has the power even to change what he knows to be the future.
 
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Hank77

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I think that the issue is not convenience. It works like a warning.

Let's a student has not done their homework for the day and it's already evening and says that they won't do it and they mean that.
Let's say that a parent who knows how this will play out then replies: "You are going to hurt your grades for not doing your homework". The parent fully knows the child's disposition and what will happen, and correctly foresees this.
However, it then turns out that the child, of his own free will then chooses to do his homework with almost impossibly quick speec and on top of it he gets an A, because the warning bothered him.
Would people say that the parent's prediction that the child would get in trouble was totally wrong and that the parent was not reliable?
I think they would say that the parent's warning was reliable, but due to the decision by the child, the future outcome was changed differently than the prediction.

The "plan" did not change - the parent wanted the child to get an A, but he foresaw based on all the information available in the whole world exactly what would happen, and it was only the child's free will with the help of the warning that averted the disaster. The desire was always for the child to do well, the foreknown outcome of the available knowledge was that he wouldn't, and it was only due to intervention that the foreknown outcome was changed.

I suppose one could say that since God is omnipotent, he has the power even to change what he knows to be the future.
I would agree. I would also say that with God there has always been the 'IF' if you will repent.....
It is very seldom that I can remember God, in the Bible, giving a prophecy of judgement that He has not given time for repentance before going ahead with the judgement.
 
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rakovsky

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imho,
It is not that the prophecy would ever be wrong but that repentance is always included in His plan because He is merciful.
Just like the Law of Moses was if/then. If this, then this.....if not, then this. God's prophets know what the choice will be because God knows what the choice will be.
The problem there is that the predictions were not put in an IF/THEN format, and in fact it was not always true that "God's prophets know what the choice will be". A good example of why this was not true always was Jonah's story - Jonah believed that Nineveh was going to get destroyed and after they repented and got spared, Jonah was very upset, which he wouldn't have been if he knew "what the choice" by Nineveh will be.

When did any of God's plan not include a period of grace and mercy? It's not that God's plan changes but that His plan includes allowing men to make choices, one of those choices is repentance.
One might consider no period of grace would be if one imagines that the unborn and unbaptized babies can't go to heaven due to bearing original sin, or if one believes in Augustine's idea of Total Depravity and combines it with the idea that some people have never heard of the God of Abraham. Augustine thought that people in what we consider the Americas could not exist because they would be beyond God's salvation, not hearing of Jesus in Augustine's time (eg. the Olmecs and Peruvians).

To the best of my knowledge though, such things are not the case and the Church doesn't have a strict position on the unbaptized as to their fate.
 
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rakovsky

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If they were divinely inspired, what they prophesied must necessarily have come to pass, unless the prophesy was conditional. The civil rights activists may have been inspired to act by their belief that all men were equal before God, but they were not directly inspired by God in the way that the prophets were (or the Bible is).
I think that this really demands more explanation at least.
Christianity does teach that God inspires people. He inspired the prophets to write their Old Testament texts, it says that they were filled with his spirit (in the case of David), then Jesus breathed the Holy Spirit on the disciples, we are taught that the scriptures (OT and NT) are sacred and inspired, that Christians get the Holy Spirit at baptism, that the Holy Spirit leads people, that the Holy Spirit led the Church as a whole when it formally agreed on some major faith statements like the Nicene Creed and the Trinity.

So to say that nobody got led or inspired by God to act after the close of the Tanakh (if that's what you mean) would not be the mainstream Christian idea.

So if God does inspire the faithful to speak and act, then how is it so different from the prophets' actions that the OT writers were definitely totally reliable, whereas people after them are not led by God's spirit to do righteous faithful acts like feeding the homeless or mission work or civil rights or ending slavery?

Why does it matter whether God uses natural or supernatural means to achieve his ends? Theology has no need to apologise to science (or science to theology).
The issue is that it would be helpful to understand how the prophecy-making works in order to help judge its reliability.
 
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Hank77

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The problem there is that the predictions were not put in an IF/THEN format, and in fact it was not always true that "God's prophets know what the choice will be".
I didn't say that the prophet would know what the choice would be. God would know though.
 
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lesliedellow

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I think that this really demands more explanation at least.
Christianity does teach that God inspires people. He inspired the prophets to write their Old Testament texts, it says that they were filled with his spirit (in the case of David), then Jesus breathed the Holy Spirit on the disciples, we are taught that the scriptures (OT and NT) are sacred and inspired, that Christians get the Holy Spirit at baptism, that the Holy Spirit leads people, that the Holy Spirit led the Church as a whole when it formally agreed on some major faith statements like the Nicene Creed and the Trinity.

Nobody today is inspired in the same way that the biblical authors were uniquely inspired. If they were, their writings would be as authoritative as the biblical texts, and that would be a charter for every power hungry egomaniac like nothing else would.

Even the Nicene Creed could in principle be modified, because it is valid only insofar as it accurately represents biblical doctrine. The latter, however, is uniquely inspired by God, and is the final court of appeal in doctrinal matters.
 
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rakovsky

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Here is an essay I found on the concept of divine inspiration, although the essay may be misrepresenting some of the views based on its own "preferred" view:
“All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work” (2 Timothy 3:16–17).

There are four views of inspiration:
1. The neo-orthodox view of inspiration
2. The dictation view of inspiration
3. The view of limited inspiration
4. The view of plenary verbal inspiration

The neo-orthodox theory of inspiration is that the words in the Bible ... are fallible words written by fallible men. The Bible is only “inspired” in that God can sometimes use the words to speak to individuals.

The dictation theory of inspiration sees God as the author of Scripture and the individual human agents as secretaries or amanuenses taking dictation. God spoke, and man wrote it down. ...we know there are portions of Scripture in which God essentially says, “Write this down” (e.g., Jeremiah 30:2), but not all Scripture was created that way. ...the dictation theory only explains certain portions of Scripture...

The theory of limited inspiration says that God guided the human authors but allowed them freedom to express themselves in their works, even to the point of allowing factual and historical errors. Fortunately, the Holy Spirit prevented doctrinal errors. The problem with this view is that, if the Bible is prone to error in its historical accounts, then how can we trust it in doctrinal matters? With limited inspiration, the reliability of the Bible is called into doubt. This view also seems to ignore the fact that the Bible’s story of redemption from Genesis to Revelation is told against the backdrop of human history—the doctrine is woven within the history. We can’t arbitrarily say that the history is inaccurate and then state it contains a kernel of doctrinal truth.

The final view, and the view of orthodox Christianity, is the theory of plenary, verbal inspiration. The word plenary means “complete or full,” and verbal means “the very words of Scripture.” So plenary, verbal inspiration is the view that every single word in the Bible is the very word of God. It’s not just the ideas or thoughts that are inspired, but the words themselves.

“Prophecy never had its origin in the human will, but prophets, though human, spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:21). This passage gives us a clue as to how God inspired the human authors. Men spoke (or wrote) “as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.” The verb for “carried along” is used to speak of a sail being filled with wind and carrying a boat along the water. When the human authors were putting pen to paper, the Holy Spirit “carried them along” so that what they wrote were the “breathed-out” words of God. So, while the writings retain the personality of the individual authors (Paul’s style is quite different from that of James or John or Peter), the words themselves are exactly what God wanted written.

What are the different theories of biblical inspiration?

My understanding is that traditional mainstream Christians hold to either what the writer calls Limited Inspiration or Plenary verbal inspiration. The common idea is that the Holy Spirit led them in writing the passages, but traditional theologians have questioned how much literalness and inerrancy this entails.

The author above is not quite right in claiming that the "orthodox" view is that every word is factual and historically exact. Augustine, who would seem to match the fourth view best, says that the Bible writers were inerrant in expressing their INTENT. So if a writer intended something literally, then it was literally true. If a writer didn't intend to describe some historical event LITERALLY, then Augustine would say that we don't look to a literal, unintended reading as "inerrant". This is an important difference.

So if the author of the story of Noah's Ark or Jonah and the whale only meant them as parables like Jesus talking about the vineyard, then we are not supposed to take those stories literally, according to St Augustine's school of interpreting.

So in this thread, I want to get into a major issue.
The Tanakh has very appealing prophecies. When we carefully look at the ways to interpret the Bible and its inspiration as outlined above, then doesn't a question arise as to the predictions' reliability?

On one hand, mainstream traditional theologians at least agree that the Bible is inspired by God and right in its doctrines theologically, even if it has factual errors. However, the essay I quoted seems to raise a major important criticism: "With limited inspiration, the reliability of the Bible is called into doubt. " The theology about Noah's Ark could be "spiritually" and "theologically" true, but it might not have factually occurred in the way that the story sounds to an audience. There might not really have been a global flood in that case, we could just be talking about a parable of Noah's loyalty to God based on regional sea flooding due to climate change. And then if that is the case, then it raises the question of whether based on the same logic the appealing things in the Tanakh promises are only "spiritually" or theologically true too, like the promises of Messiah, his resurrection, and the future resurrection of the dead, even though they clearly would be normally taken factually by their audiences.
 
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rakovsky

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I didn't say that the prophet would know what the choice would be. God would know though.
OK, although that is how I interpreted your underlined sentence:
It is not that the prophecy would ever be wrong but that repentance is always included in His plan because He is merciful.
Just like the Law of Moses was if/then. If this, then this.....if not, then this. God's prophets know what the choice will be because God knows what the choice will be.
 
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rakovsky

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Nobody today is inspired in the same way that the biblical authors were uniquely inspired. If they were, their writings would be as authoritative as the biblical texts, and that would be a charter for every power hungry egomaniac like nothing else would.

Even the Nicene Creed could in principle be modified, because it is valid only insofar as it accurately represents biblical doctrine. The latter, however, is uniquely inspired by God, and is the final court of appeal in doctrinal matters.
Leslie,
I am very skeptical about your underlined justification. If the writings of some rare ascetic faithful holy person is inspired and led by the Holy Spirit to express something holy and divine, it seems qualitively the same as the Prophets. Please note that in the NT period, the NT writings themselves speak of Christian "prophets" whose writings and expressions are not included in the Biblical Canon. Paul especially writes of "the prophets" in his letter to Corinthians, and the concept and term prophets (about Christians) comes up in early writings like the Didache and St Ignatius.

The fully understandable reason why their writings would not necessarily be as authoritative as the Bible texts is because of the issue of discernment and catholic, whole, united, ecumenical acceptance. The Christians in the first Four centuries AD deliberately came together to discern and decide which books would be considered to be in the Bible. Other words like Shepherd of Hermes were considered and SOME people did consider them as Bible books. But ultimately the Church did not AGREE on this book.

John's Revelation was considered inspired by God, but do you think it was the only vision he ever got? It seems easy to expect that he or other apostles got visions they narrated that are nonetheless not directly narrated in the Bible. But that doesn't mean that we are going to hold the visions or revelations to a criteria that "If they were inspired, those visions or writings would be as authoritative as the biblical texts".

All the lack of authority means is that the catholic united Church did not come to an agreement that the writings were inspired thoroughly enough and of authority enough to be in the Canon.

There is no teaching in mainstream patristic Christianity AFAIK that God did not inspire the pre-modern ecumenical/catholic Councils like Nicea. The historic teaching AFAIK is that the Holy Spirit did inspire their work, even though the Councils do not have the same authority as the Bible.
One difference is that in the Bible, prophets sometimes speak, quote, and repeat the exact words of God ("The Lord says..."), and so does Jesus, naturally, but that doesn't happen in the Councils.
 
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