- Feb 5, 2002
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this part I can not say for sure but I think a rapist wearing a condom would be viewed as morally similar to a condom in use by a gay couple to prevent disease. There are, of course, differences in those examples. But the similarity is that both are not the conjugal act. Both are deformed actions from the start. Because rape is an act of violence and not the conjugal act it is a different moral object in contraception terms. That is how it seems the Bishops can directly say, as directly as they do that non-abortive contraception is allowable in rape. I mean...this has been a longstanding policy and the Vatican and very conservative bishops have not opposed the continual inclusion of this view. And I think it revolves around the nature of the act as having a different object.
It makes sense to me up to a point. It's a disordered act anyway you look at it so if conception has not occured...then it is permissable to take action from that occuring to ease the suffering of the victim.
But does the rapist wearing a condom...& many do to prevent DNA evidence make the act any less evil?
Gay couples, same question?
It seems to me that preventative sponges & condoms would be a grey area depending...
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