because they are mortal, which all men inherited from Adam in the Fall along with corruption and an inclination to sin. it has nothing to do with legalism or any guilt because of Adam's sin.
"Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses,
even over them that HAD NOT SINNED after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if
through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. For if
by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."
"
For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth? For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband." Romans 5, 6 & 7
Is Paul not saying that due to Adam's sin/breaking of a commandment, penal/criminal judgement has fallen upon all of Adam's prosperity and they are considered law breakers guilty of Adam's sin? According to your answer Matt, "death is the consequence of sin..." doesn't that leap to a conclusion that excludes "for the wages of sin is death?" In Romans we read that they
HAD NOT SINNED after the similitude of Adam's transgression yet all of humanity still receives Adam's punishment. How is it possible that humanity inherited the punishment for Adam's crime? Is it fair to say that all of humanity in Adam fell into sin and all of humanity in Christ will be saved? If that is fair to say, why?
"For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners..."
How did Adam's commandment breaking (not to eat of the fruit of the tree) make us "sinners," allowing babies to die without actual sin, making us guilty of sin?
"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:"
According to Orthodoxy
how did "death pass upon all men, for that all have sinned?"
Thanks,
jm