The NKJV isn't the only translation that capitalizes "Him" and "He" when referring to God and Yeshua. However, none of these translations including the NKJV capitalizes "him" or "he" in Acts 7:37-38. We both agree that when these personal pronouns are Capitalized it's an indication that Yeshua is the physical manifestation of God Incarnate.
However, there isn't a translation that capitalizes "him" in Acts 7:37 or "he" in Acts 7:38, and certainly not the KJB and AKJV that you altered the text to deceive us into thinking it's a reference to Yeshua. This is how the text of the KJB and AKJV (translations you edited) actually reads before you altered the text ...
37 This is that Moses, which said unto the children of Israel, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear. (KJB)
38 "This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spoke to him in the mount Sina, and with our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give to us:" (AKJV)
These same two verses after you altered the text to support your belief ...
37 This is that Moses, which said unto the children of Israel, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; HIM shall ye hear. (KJB)
38 This is He, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sina, and with our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give unto us: (AKJV)
Why didn't you use all CAPITALS for
LORD and only capitalize
Him as long as you decided it was alright for you to alter the text?
Both you and gadar believe you are being lead by His presence and yet in thread after thread for months if not years and still you both differ on whether or not Yeshua is the physical manifestation of God Incarnate. Yet you will keep posting threads as if you believe you can change his mind; while he posts
"My gloves are on until the day I die for I fight for what I know is true."
Was His presence leading you to alter the above scripture to give it a different meaning than is interpreted by the NKJV and other translations that do use Caps
when it's appropriate to reference God and Yeshua ?
It helps to compare translations before you start altering text to justify your beliefs.
35 It was this very Moses whom they had denied (disowned and rejected), saying, Who made you our ruler (referee) and judge? whom God sent to be a ruler and deliverer and redeemer, by and with the [protecting and helping] hand of the Angel that appeared to him in the bramblebush.
36 He it was who led them forth, having worked wonders and signs in Egypt and at the Red Sea and during the forty years in the wilderness (desert).
37 It was this [very] Moses who said to the children of Israel, God will raise up for you a Prophet from among your brethren as He raised me up.
38 This is he who in the assembly in the wilderness (desert) was the go-between for the Angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai and our forefathers, and he received living oracles (words that still live) to be handed down to us. (AMPC)
In the context of these verses i can readily see why you capitalized "He" in verse 38. When one considers "He raised up me" at the end of verse 37, it stands to reason that "This is He" at the beginning of verse 38 should also be capitalized. Maybe, just maybe, His presence is leading you more than most translators when it comes to whether "This is he" would better read as "This is He" at the beginning of verse 38.