Dear brother,
Never take my word for anything if does not seem right to you. I am as human as you are, and I also make mistakes. Always check against the facts any doubtful statements that I make. In this particular case, I do believe that you are confused, but not in the way you apparently think that I mean. You are quoting from Codex Bezae, but Beza did Not translate the Greek into Latin. He could not have, because he was not even born for about another 1,000 years! The Codex Bezae is not called the Codex Bezae because Beza wrote it, translated it, or anything else concerning it other than that he owned it. Théodore de Bèze (Beza) was an earlier editor of the Greek Text of the New Testament who lived in the 16th century.
I understand what your saying, and believe me, I was looking forward to
your input.
Theodore Beza, the successor of John Calvin.
As I understand it, the Latin on the right, is derived from the Vulgate, and various other Commentaries from the ECF's. Most especially the Early, early Church Fathers.
Anyhow, my only point was to show that in the diglot, between the Greek and the Latin, there is a disagreement.
Have you heard of Dr. Kenneth Clark?
I have an article, written by him, in "The Biblical Theological Journal" (I think is the name) about the possible causes for the different "modifications".
I do, look forward to a more "civilized" discussion than we have had in the past.
Perhaps you might give me a few tips in my study on "Textual Criticism".
Have you read Marvin Vincent's "A History of Textual Criticism of the New Testament" (1899)?
I have used this as base to provide an overview of the beginnings up to the dawn of the 20th Century.
God Bless
Till all are one.