Christian Universalism. What's not to like?

[Andrewn]

For example, in Ezekiel 18:30 the closest analogue seems to be the phrase "κόλασιν ἀδικίας" being used to translate "וְלֹֽא־יִהְיֶ֥ה לָכֶ֛ם לְמִכְשׁ֖וֹל." Ezekiel 14 seems to be something not present in the Bible Hebraica.

Kolasis is found in 6 verses in Ezekiel LXX. Translators occasionally use kolasis for Hebrew mikshole, which means stumbling block / obstacle / downfall. Other times they use it to translate words that mean "shame" and "iniquity." Why are they using kolasis in these instances?

 

[Der Alte]

κολασιν/kolasin the word correctly translated “punishment” in Matt 25:46 occurs one other time in the NT in 1 Jn 4:18.

1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment. [κολασιν/kolasin] He that feareth is not made perfect in love.​

There is no correction, those who have “kolasin” are not corrected, not made perfect.
The language of the Greek Eastern Orthodox church has always been Greek. Who better to know the correct translation of Greek words e.g.κολασιν/kolasin” and αιωνιον/aionion” than the native Greek speaking translators of the EOB?

THE EASTERN / GREEK ORTHODOX BIBLE EOB) — NEW TESTAMENT 96
Matthew 25:46 Then he will answer them. saying ‘Amen. I tell you: a much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.' “These [ones on the left] will go away into eternal punishment.[κολασιν αιωνιον/kolasin aionion] but the righteous into eternal 1ife.
= = = = = = = = = =
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world, his invisible things are clearly seen. They perceived through created things, even his everlasting [τε αιδιος/te aidios] power and divinity.
= = = = = = = = = =
1 Timothy 1:17 Now, to the eternal [των αιωνων/ton aionon] King. immortal. invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory unto ages of ages. Amen.​

Not only does Paul, in 1 Tim 1:17, use “aionion” synonymously with “aidios,” in Rom 1:20, Paul also literally defines “aionon” in 1 Tim 1:17. Although the EOB translates βασιλει των αιωνων as “eternal king” some might argue that “aionon king” means “king of the age” but in this verse “aionion” is paired with “immortal.” An indefinite “age” is not equivalent to “immortal.”

 

[Fervent]

Kolasis is found in 6 verses in Ezekiel LXX. Translators occasionally use kolasis for Hebrew mikshole, which means stumbling block / obstacle / downfall. Other times they use it to translate words that mean "shame" and "iniquity." Why are they using kolasis in these instances?

You missed another use for mikshole, which is the contextual use in Ezekiel and that is "ruin." And it is used to express that the impetus for the destruction/ruin that is brought upon the people is not out of a sense of vengeance.

 

[Saint Steven]

Why are they using kolasis in these instances?

I'll venture a guess.
It was corrective, not only punitive.

 

[Saint Steven]

Kolasis is found in 6 verses in Ezekiel LXX. Translators occasionally use kolasis for Hebrew mikshole, which means stumbling block / obstacle / downfall. Other times they use it to translate words that mean "shame" and "iniquity." Why are they using kolasis in these instances?

That is a very interesting observation. Could you post the six verses for discussion?

It seems that these "punishments" were either natural consequences, or God had caused/allowed them to prompt repentance. (turning back to him)

 

[Saint Steven]

Here's a video from an interesting channel that shows the use of minerals and furnaces to extract the precious metals. Seems applicable to the God fire we have been discussing. (1 Corinthians 3:12-15)

 

[Fervent]

That is a very interesting observation. Could you post the six verses for discussion?

It seems that these "punishments" were either natural consequences, or God had caused/allowed them to prompt repentance. (turning back to him)

There's nothing about kolasis that implies natural consequences, but what it implies is the disposition of the one inflicting the punishment. If their sense of vengeance is satisfied, another word is more appropriate. Kolasis often is used for corrective punishment, but that's not the indication of the word. Merely that the punishment is not for the pleasure of the one inflicting it.

 

[Der Alte]

***

Here's a video from an interesting channel that shows the use of minerals and furnaces to extract the precious metals. Seems applicable to the God fire we have been discussing. (1 Corinthians 3:12-15)

Yet another instance of quoting a supposed UR supporting proof text out-of-context. This out of context snippet seems to be quoted around here almost on a weekly basis.
When these 2-3 verses are quoted out of their context they do at first seem to support UR. But observe...

1 Corinthians 3:9-17
9 For we are labourers together with God: ye are God's husbandry, ye are God's building.
10 According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.​

These verses clearly show that Paul is not talking to/about all mankind but only to “laborers together with God,””God's husbandry,””God's building” “who build on the foundation of Christ” vss, 9-12.
Paul mentions this foundation three times. Vs. 11 excludes any work not on the foundation of Christ.
The phrases “every man,””no man,””any man,” throughout this passage refer to the group in vss. 9-10, NOT all mankind.

11 For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ.
12 Now if any man build upon this foundation [vs. 10] gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble;
13 Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is.
14 If any man's work abide which he hath built thereupon [the foundation of Christ vs. 10], he shall receive a reward.
15 If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire.​

The work mentioned in these these vss. is NOT the ordinary, mundane works of all mankind but the work of building on the foundation of Christ. Man is NOT saved by works.
And vs. 15 does not say anyone is saved by fire. It says, “Yet so as by fire.”

16 Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?
17 If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are.​

Vs. 17 clearly refutes UR in this passage. All mankind is not saved, those who defile the temple will be destroyed.
This passage is NOT speaking about all mankind no matter how UR-ites try to twist it.
Nowhere is it written that anyone is saved by fire or that the loss of ordinary, mundane works of unsaved mankind will save anyone.

 

[Hmm]

Kolasis often is used for corrective punishment, but that's not the indication of the word.

Not only is it the indication of the word, it is the meaning of the word and has been from Platonic times until at least late antiquity, and so was the definition when scripture was written.

Here's Eastern Orthodox theologian David Bentley Hart on the subject:

"The word κολασις (kolasis) originally meant “pruning” or “docking” or “obviating the growth” of trees or other plants, and then came to mean “confinement,” “being held in check,” “punishment,” or “chastisement,” chiefly with the connotation of “correction.” Classically, the word was distinguished (by Aristotle, for instance) from τιμωρια (timōria), which means a retributive punishment only. Whether such a distinction holds here is difficult to say, since by late antiquity kolasis seems to have been used by many to describe punishment of any kind; but the only other use of the noun in the New Testament is in 1 John 4:18, where it refers not to retributive punishment, but to the suffering experienced by someone who is subject to fear because not yet perfected in charity. The verbal form, κολαζω (kolazō) appears twice: in Acts 4:21, where it clearly refers only to disciplinary punishment, and in 2 Peter 2:9 in reference to fallen angels and unrighteous men, where it probably means being held in check” or “penned in” [until the day of judgment]. (David Bentley Hart, The New Testament: A Translation [New Haven: Yale University Press, 2017], 53 n. w)

 

[Der Alte]

***

<QUOTE="Hmm">Not only is it the indication of the word, it is the meaning of the word at least until late antiquity and so if the definition when scripture was written.
Here's Eastern Orthodox theologian David Bentley Hart, on the subject:
"The word κολασις (kolasis) originally meant “pruning” or “docking” or “obviating the growth” of trees or other plants, and then came to mean “confinement,” “being held in check,” “punishment,” or “chastisement,” chiefly with the connotation of “correction.” Classically, the word was distinguished (by Aristotle, for instance) from τιμωρια (timōria), which means a retributive punishment only. Whether such a distinction holds here is difficult to say, since by late antiquity kolasis seems to have been used by many to describe punishment of any kind; but the only other use of the noun in the New Testament is in 1 John 4:18, where it refers not to retributive punishment, but to the suffering experienced by someone who is subject to fear because not yet perfected in charity. The verbal form, κολαζω (kolazō) appears twice: in Acts 4:21, where it clearly refers only to disciplinary punishment, and in 2 Peter 2:9 in reference to fallen angels and unrighteous men, where it probably means being held in check” or “penned in” [until the day of judgment]. (David Bentley Hart, The New Testament: A Translation [New Haven: Yale University Press, 2017], 53 n. w)</QUOTE>​

It does NOT mean correction or pruning! In the EOB the official Bible of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church "kolasis" is translated "punishment" in both Matthew 25:46 and 1 John 4:18.

 

[Der Alte]

Now I know that the "Hell no! group" will totally ignore this because it totally debunks their UR agenda. The definition of "Kolazo" from BDAG the premier Greek lexicon currently available.
I have highlighted, in blue, the historical sources the real scholars consulted in determining the correct meaning of the word. See final note in the definition.
....."Aristotle’s limitation of the term κόλασις to disciplinary action Rhet. 1, 10, 17 is not reflected in gener. usage."

κολάζω fut. κολάσω; 1 aor. mid. ἐκολασάμην. Pass.: 1 fut. κολασθήσομαι; aor. 3 pl. ἐκολάσθησαν LXX; pf. inf. κεκολάσθαι (s. three next entries penalize, punish (so Trag., Pla.+; also OGI 90, 28; PSI 446, 14; PRyl 62, 9) act. τινά someone lit., of the punishment of slaves Hs 9, 28, 8. In imagery do someone an injury, of polytheists who penalize their cult images by locking them up Dg 2:8. In an apocalyptic place of punishment are οἱ κολάζοντες ἄγγελοι ApcPt 6:21b (Chariton 4, 2, 7 οἱ κολάζοντες=‘constables, police’; Sallust. 19 p. 34, 15 δαίμονες κολάζοντες).—Mid. (Aristoph., Vesp. 405; Pla., Protag. 324c; 3 Macc 7:3; ApcEsdr 1:11 p. 25, 4 Tdf.; Just., A II, 2, 9; 11; 16) Ac 4:21.—Mostly pass. of the punishment of Christians 1 Pt 2:20 v.l.; Dg 5:16; 6:9; 7:8; 10:7; MPol 2:4. Of the Last Judgment 2 Pt 2:9. βασάνοις 2 Cl 17:7 (on the dat., cp. Appian, Bell. Civ. 2, 90 §377 κ. θανάτῳ; Polyaenus 3, 9, 56; Lucian, Dial. Mort. 17, 2; Jos., Ant. 18, 314 κ. πληγαῖς.—Just., A II, 1, 2 ἐν πυρί). δισσῶς be punished doubly Hs 9, 18, 2. Of hell οἱ κολαζόμενοι ἐκεῖ ApcPt 6:21a. (Of punishment by God: TestAsh 6:2; ApcEsdr 1:11; Just., D. 88, 5; Diod S 16, 32, 1; Epict. 3, 11, 3; Dio Chrys. 59 [76], 5; Aesop, Fab. 77 P.=127 H. ὑπὸ θεῶν κολάζονται; oft. in ins in FSteinleitner, D. Beicht 1913, p. 10ff; LRobert, Nouvelles Inscriptions de Sardes ’64, 24ff; LXX; Jos., Bell. 2, 163; cp. Theoph. Ant., 2, 36 [p. 196, 24]). Aristotle’s limitation of the term κόλασις to disciplinary action Rhet. 1, 10, 17 is not reflected in gener. usage.—DELG s.v. κόλος 3. M-M. TW.[1]
[1] Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., pp. 554–555). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.​

 

[ozso]

Yet another instance of quoting a supposed UR supporting proof text out-of-context. This out of context snippet seems to be quoted around here almost on a weekly basis.
When these 2-3 verses are quoted out of their context they do at first seem to support UR. But observe...

1 Corinthians 3:9-17
9 For we are labourers together with God: ye are God's husbandry, ye are God's building.
10 According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.​

These verses clearly show that Paul is not talking to/about all mankind but only to “laborers together with God,””God's husbandry,””God's building” “who build on the foundation of Christ” vss, 9-12.
Paul mentions this foundation three times. Vs. 11 excludes any work not on the foundation of Christ.
The phrases “every man,””no man,””any man,” throughout this passage refer to the group in vss. 9-10, NOT all mankind.

11 For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ.
12 Now if any man build upon this foundation [vs. 10] gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble;
13 Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is.
14 If any man's work abide which he hath built thereupon [the foundation of Christ vs. 10], he shall receive a reward.
15 If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire.​

The work mentioned in these these vss. is NOT the ordinary, mundane works of all mankind but the work of building on the foundation of Christ. Man is NOT saved by works.
And vs. 15 does not say anyone is saved by fire. It says, “Yet so as by fire.”

16 Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?
17 If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are.​

Vs. 17 clearly refutes UR in this passage. All mankind is not saved, those who defile the temple will be destroyed.
This passage is NOT speaking about all mankind no matter how UR-ites try to twist it.
Nowhere is it written that anyone is saved by fire or that the loss of ordinary, mundane works of unsaved mankind will save anyone.

I see/hear this passage most often being used for OSAS. And what's taught in that case, is one being saved by the skin of their teeth. They will enter heaven bereft of any reward and virtually naked. UR takes that up a notch and includes everyone.

 

[ozso]

<QUOTE="Hmm">Not only is it the indication of the word, it is the meaning of the word at least until late antiquity and so if the definition when scripture was written.
Here's Eastern Orthodox theologian David Bentley Hart, on the subject:
"The word κολασις (kolasis) originally meant “pruning” or “docking” or “obviating the growth” of trees or other plants, and then came to mean “confinement,” “being held in check,” “punishment,” or “chastisement,” chiefly with the connotation of “correction.” Classically, the word was distinguished (by Aristotle, for instance) from τιμωρια (timōria), which means a retributive punishment only. Whether such a distinction holds here is difficult to say, since by late antiquity kolasis seems to have been used by many to describe punishment of any kind; but the only other use of the noun in the New Testament is in 1 John 4:18, where it refers not to retributive punishment, but to the suffering experienced by someone who is subject to fear because not yet perfected in charity. The verbal form, κολαζω (kolazō) appears twice: in Acts 4:21, where it clearly refers only to disciplinary punishment, and in 2 Peter 2:9 in reference to fallen angels and unrighteous men, where it probably means being held in check” or “penned in” [until the day of judgment]. (David Bentley Hart, The New Testament: A Translation [New Haven: Yale University Press, 2017], 53 n. w)</QUOTE>​

It does NOT mean correction or pruning! In the EOB the official Bible of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church "kolasis" is translated "punishment" in both Matthew 25:46 and 1 John 4:18.

Heart is talking about ancient original meanings. The EOB is a modern work.

 

[ozso]

Now I know that the "Hell no! group" will totally ignore this because it totally debunks their UR agenda. The definition of "Kolazo" from BDAG the premier Greek lexicon currently available.
I have highlighted, in blue, the historical sources the real scholars consulted in determining the correct meaning of the word. See final note in the definition.
....."Aristotle’s limitation of the term κόλασις to disciplinary action Rhet. 1, 10, 17 is not reflected in gener. usage."

κολάζω fut. κολάσω; 1 aor. mid. ἐκολασάμην. Pass.: 1 fut. κολασθήσομαι; aor. 3 pl. ἐκολάσθησαν LXX; pf. inf. κεκολάσθαι (s. three next entries penalize, punish (so Trag., Pla.+; also OGI 90, 28; PSI 446, 14; PRyl 62, 9) act. τινά someone lit., of the punishment of slaves Hs 9, 28, 8. In imagery do someone an injury, of polytheists who penalize their cult images by locking them up Dg 2:8. In an apocalyptic place of punishment are οἱ κολάζοντες ἄγγελοι ApcPt 6:21b (Chariton 4, 2, 7 οἱ κολάζοντες=‘constables, police’; Sallust. 19 p. 34, 15 δαίμονες κολάζοντες).—Mid. (Aristoph., Vesp. 405; Pla., Protag. 324c; 3 Macc 7:3; ApcEsdr 1:11 p. 25, 4 Tdf.; Just., A II, 2, 9; 11; 16) Ac 4:21.—Mostly pass. of the punishment of Christians 1 Pt 2:20 v.l.; Dg 5:16; 6:9; 7:8; 10:7; MPol 2:4. Of the Last Judgment 2 Pt 2:9. βασάνοις 2 Cl 17:7 (on the dat., cp. Appian, Bell. Civ. 2, 90 §377 κ. θανάτῳ; Polyaenus 3, 9, 56; Lucian, Dial. Mort. 17, 2; Jos., Ant. 18, 314 κ. πληγαῖς.—Just., A II, 1, 2 ἐν πυρί). δισσῶς be punished doubly Hs 9, 18, 2. Of hell οἱ κολαζόμενοι ἐκεῖ ApcPt 6:21a. (Of punishment by God: TestAsh 6:2; ApcEsdr 1:11; Just., D. 88, 5; Diod S 16, 32, 1; Epict. 3, 11, 3; Dio Chrys. 59 [76], 5; Aesop, Fab. 77 P.=127 H. ὑπὸ θεῶν κολάζονται; oft. in ins in FSteinleitner, D. Beicht 1913, p. 10ff; LRobert, Nouvelles Inscriptions de Sardes ’64, 24ff; LXX; Jos., Bell. 2, 163; cp. Theoph. Ant., 2, 36 [p. 196, 24]). Aristotle’s limitation of the term κόλασις to disciplinary action Rhet. 1, 10, 17 is not reflected in gener. usage.—DELG s.v. κόλος 3. M-M. TW.[1]
[1] Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., pp. 554–555). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.​

I think the problem here is that what you have highlighted in blue is indecipherable. Basically you're saying that you post a wall of indecipherable text and then nobody addresses it. I doubt that surprises the lurkers any.

 

[Der Alte]

***

Heart is talking about ancient original meanings. The EOB is a modern work

.

Total nonsense! Do English speaking scholars know the meaning of archaic English words in ancient writings? I read somewhere that more than 800 words in the KJV have changed significantly or dropped out of use altogether.
Do you presume that modern [non-UR] Greek scholars some how have all developed a case of the stupids and don't know the meaning of ancient Greek words? But your pet UR scholars e.g. UR high priestess Ramelli knows all? C'mon lets get real here people.
You quoted a present day Eastern Orthodox scholar that supposedly gave us the "true" meaning of Kolasis. How did he know the correct meaning [if he even did] and native Greek speaking scholars don't?
He didn't, as I proved from BDAG. Hold on a second I hear a bunch of crickets chirping.
I posted a definition in this thread from BDAG and highlighted the many historical sources they consulted. But [knee jerk] they are all wrong. However, surprise, surprise, every UR "scholar" source knows all. How does that work? Wait a minute while I roll up my pants.
I write as I would for graduate level. Go read an actual lexicon, any language. Those are all common abbreviations of the sources consulted which are fully identified in the bibliographies. If you tried real hard you might even find the actual source online with all the notes, bibliography etc.

 

[ozso]

Total nonsense! Do English speaking scholars know the meaning of archaic English words in ancient writings? I read somewhere that more than 800 words in the KJV have changed significantly or dropped out of use altogether.
Do you presume that modern [non-UR] Greek scholars some how have all developed a case of the stupids and don't know the meaning of ancient Greek words? But your pet UR scholars e.g. UR high priestess Ramelli knows all? C'mon lets get real here people.
You quoted a present day Eastern Orthodox scholar that supposedly gave us the "true" meaning of Kolasis. How did he know the correct meaning [if he even did] and native Greek speaking scholars don't?
He didn't, as I proved from BDAG. Hold on a second I hear a bunch of crickets chirping.
I posted a definition in this thread from BDAG and highlighted the many historical sources they consulted. But [knee jerk] they are all wrong. However, surprise, surprise, every UR "scholar" source knows all. How does that work? Wait a minute while I roll up my pants.
I write as I would for graduate level. Go read an actual lexicon, any language. Those are all common abbreviations of the sources consulted which are fully identified in the bibliographies. If you tried real hard you might even find the actual source online with all the notes, bibliography etc.

Nonsense eh? When was the EOB you're referring to published?
The fact that words change over time is the whole point.
And which native Greek speaking scholars are you referring to? Bauer, Danker, Arndt, and Gingrich? Those don't look like Greek surnames to me. I'm sorry that you're hearing crickets, but nobody (including you probably) can decipher what "Mid. (Aristoph., Vesp. 405; Pla., Protag. 324c; 3 Macc 7:3; ApcEsdr 1:11 p. 25, 4 Tdf.; Just., A II, 2, 9; 11; 16)" et al means.

 

[Hmm]

And which native Greek speaking scholars are you referring to? Bauer, Danker, Arndt, and Gingrich? Those don't look like Greek surnames to me.

lol

 

[Fervent]

That's funny, Louw & Nida has this:
κόλασις, εως f: to punish, with the implication of resulting severe suffering — ‘to punish, punishment.’
κολάζω: ἀδίκους δὲ εἰς ἡμέραν κρίσεως κολαζομένους τηρεῖν ‘to keep the wicked under punishment until the day of judgment comes’ or ‘… under guard, awaiting punishment on the day of judgment’ 2Pe 2:9.
κόλασις: ἀπελεύσονται οὗτοι εἰς κόλασιν αἰώνιον, οἱ δὲ δίκαιοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον ‘these will [p. 490] be sent off to eternal punishment, but the righteous (will go) to eternal life’ Mt 25:46.
In a number of languages punishment is often expressed as a causative of suffering, that is to say, ‘to cause to suffer’ or ‘to cause to endure harm.’ In some languages, however, there are a number of different types of punishment, and clear distinctions must be made between various degrees of punishment as well as between physical versus mental punishment.

And the distinction in the NT word study dictionary is also instructive:
kólasis; gen. koláseōs, fem. noun from kolázō (2849), to punish. Punishment (Matt. 25:46), torment (1 John 4:18), distinguished from timōrı́a (5098), punishment, which in Class. Gr. has the predominating thought of the vindictive character of the punishment which satisfies the inflicter’s sense of outraged justice in defending his own honor or that of the violated law. Kólasis, on the other hand, conveys the notion of punishment for the correction and bettering of the offender. It does not always, however, have this strict meaning in the NT. In Matt. 25:46, kólasis aiṓnios (166), eternal, does not refer to temporary corrective punishment and discipline, but has rather the meaning of timōrı́a, punishment because of the violation of the eternal law of God. It is equivalent to géenna (1067), hell, a final punishment about which offenders are warned by our Lord (Mark 9:43–48). In this sense it does not have the implication of bettering one who endures such punishment. In kólasis, we have the relationship of the punishment to the one being punished while in timōrı́a the relationship is to the punisher himself.

What David Bentley Hart has committed is a well known lexical fallacy known as the etymological fallacy, where a words origin is mistaken for later usage. How the word came to be coined is rather immaterial to how it is used. And given David Bentley Hart's credentials making such a simplistic fallacious move is likely something he knows better than to do.

 

[Der Alte]

That's funny, Louw & Nida has this:
κόλασις, εως f: to punish, with the implication of resulting severe suffering — ‘to punish, punishment.’
κολάζω: ἀδίκους δὲ εἰς ἡμέραν κρίσεως κολαζομένους τηρεῖν ‘to keep the wicked under punishment until the day of judgment comes’ or ‘… under guard, awaiting punishment on the day of judgment’ 2Pe 2:9.
κόλασις: ἀπελεύσονται οὗτοι εἰς κόλασιν αἰώνιον, οἱ δὲ δίκαιοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον ‘these will [p. 490] be sent off to eternal punishment, but the righteous (will go) to eternal life’ Mt 25:46.
In a number of languages punishment is often expressed as a causative of suffering, that is to say, ‘to cause to suffer’ or ‘to cause to endure harm.’ In some languages, however, there are a number of different types of punishment, and clear distinctions must be made between various degrees of punishment as well as between physical versus mental punishment.

And the distinction in the NT word study dictionary is also instructive:
kólasis; gen. koláseōs, fem. noun from kolázō (2849), to punish. Punishment (Matt. 25:46), torment (1 John 4:18), distinguished from timōrı́a (5098), punishment, which in Class. Gr. has the predominating thought of the vindictive character of the punishment which satisfies the inflicter’s sense of outraged justice in defending his own honor or that of the violated law. Kólasis, on the other hand, conveys the notion of punishment for the correction and bettering of the offender. It does not always, however, have this strict meaning in the NT. In Matt. 25:46, kólasis aiṓnios (166), eternal, does not refer to temporary corrective punishment and discipline, but has rather the meaning of timōrı́a, punishment because of the violation of the eternal law of God. It is equivalent to géenna (1067), hell, a final punishment about which offenders are warned by our Lord (Mark 9:43–48). In this sense it does not have the implication of bettering one who endures such punishment. In kólasis, we have the relationship of the punishment to the one being punished while in timōrı́a the relationship is to the punisher himself.

What David Bentley Hart has committed is a well known lexical fallacy known as the etymological fallacy, where a words origin is mistaken for later usage. How the word came to be coined is rather immaterial to how it is used. And given David Bentley Hart's credentials making such a simplistic fallacious move is likely something he knows better than to do.

Don't you know that all non-UR scholars are always wrong and UR "scholars" are always right? As in the above post I quoted the Eastern Greek Orthodox Bible but that was rejected "that was modern Greek" as if native Greek speaking scholars don't know what the ancient writers meant BUT a scholar who, OBTW, just happens to support UR does.

 

[Hmm]

What David Bentley Hart has committed is a well known lexical fallacy known as the etymological fallacy, where a words origin is mistaken for later usage.

? He explicitly says that the meaning of kolasis changed during late antiquity (284AD - 700AD).

And given David Bentley Hart's credentials making such a simplistic fallacious move is likely something he knows better than to do.

Or, more likely, given his credentials, making simple errors is something he doesn't do and you have misunderstood him (see the point above)