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Rev 22:17And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely.
Rev 22:18¶For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
Rev 22:19And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and [from] the things which are written in this book.
anyone have any comments on this scripture, when we translate the bible are we not taking the words from it. Some tranlations dont just change words, but thoughts
much like I enjoy the message... written in contemporary conversational english, although I wouldn't use it for study!
Never heard of it.
I do enjoy the Cotton Patch Version for entertainment purposes only.
Glad to see someone saying this.The book of the Bible was not compiled yet. All the NT gospels and letters were not compiled into one book until AD 405.
So when John wrote this, he obviously only had the book of Revelation in mind, not the book of the Bible.
As far as I know, there is no church, group, organization, or cult that has added anything to the Book of Revelation,
Rev. was written before there was a NT Bible. Any statement in Rev. could only apply to itself.
This is the classic argument used by so many people. The Bible says X, but of course we know that it REALLY MEANS Y.The Mind of God that wrote Revelation had already written the rest of the Scriptures and would apply therefore to all.
These are warnings against those who would carelessly alert the Word of scripture. It isn't really against making translations. It is important to keep in mind when making a translation though to try and be as accurate as possible using the oldest sources possible.Rev 22:17And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely.http://www.blueletterbible.org/tsk_b/Rev/22/18.htmlhttp://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Rev&chapter=22&verse=18&version=KJV#18http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/popup.pl?book=Rev&chapter=22&verse=18&version=KJV#18
Rev 22:18¶For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
Rev 22:19And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and [from] the things which are written in this book.
anyone have any comments on this scripture, when we translate the bible are we not taking the words from it. Some tranlations dont just change words, but thoughts
anyone have any comments on this scripture, when we translate the bible are we not taking the words from it. Some tranlations dont just change words, but thoughts
The Douay-Rhiems is the oldest English translation. It predates the Authorized Version by 2 years.
So we can agree then that there is no "perfect" English translation.![]()
How about the Emphatic Diaglott?
Can anyone give feedback on that particular translation?
The book of the Bible was not compiled yet. All the NT gospels and letters were not compiled into one book until AD 405.
So when John wrote this, he obviously only had the book of Revelation in mind, not the book of the Bible.
As far as I know, there is no church, group, organization, or cult that has added anything to the Book of Revelation,
The Mind of God that wrote Revelation had already written the rest of the Scriptures and would apply therefore to all. Your logic would hold water but since it concerns the Word of God it holds little water. Either you hold to the Bible as the Word of God or the word of men. If the former is true, your logic is of no import. And if you hold to the later view, your logic holds even less import.
Cheers,
Cosmic
This is the classic argument used by so many people. The Bible says X, but of course we know that it REALLY MEANS Y.
John was writing his book. You have no evidence that he (or God) meant those statements to apply to the entire Bible, not just to the book he was writing. And yet you state it as if it is a fact. Sometimes I think that I, who say that I don't believe in the inerrancy of the Bible, often take the Bible MORE LITERALLY than do those who so adamantly defend inerrancy. If it says X, then it MEANS X.
Well, Wycliff is the first English Translation it was done in the 1380's. It is an English translation of Jerome's Vulgate. Then came Tyndale's NT in 1526 and the whole bible by 1536. He coined new words like "Jehovah", "Passover", "Atonement", and "Scapegoat". the DR NT was finished in 1582 and the OT by 1609.The Douay-Rhiems is the oldest English translation. It predates the Authorized Version by 2 years.
No... the translation of Wycliffe in the 1500's followed by Tyndale, then the bishop's bible, cromwells bible, the great bible, etc. all predate both the KJV and the DRVThe Douay-Rhiems is the oldest English translation. It predates the Authorized Version by 2 years.