ForceofTime
Type, Pray, Edit, Repeat...
I guess the real question then is, "Can God alter himself to such an extent that HE is no longer God, thereby assuring there is NO God?"
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Is it logically possible for God to destroy prescriptive, moral or spiritual good of any kind? If so, why?
I would gently suggest that you either haven't a sufficient grasp of the subject to make a proper judgment or you're grasping at straws in order to avoid a conclusion.Can God be destroyed? No. It is not ordained by God.
Can goodness be destroyed? Yes, as it is not God. It is merely a possession of God.
I have no idea where you came up with an idea like this in light of what is being discussed. Would you care to attempt a rational refutation of the OP?I guess the real question then is, "Can God alter himself to such an extent that HE is no longer God, thereby assuring there is NO God?"
There should be no disagreement that God may be said to be characterized by one superintending principle: perfection. many attributes are found in God--mercy, love, justice, compassionate, forgiving, etc.--but if He lacks perfection in these or any facet of His essence, He must ultimately fall from being God to being at best, a god....or no god at all.
1) a logical difficulty exists here for annihilationists and eternal tormentists--because all goods proceed from truth, and God is pure, perfect Truth. For Him to destroy or eternally separate literally any good from His creation is a logical impossibility. Corresponding to this, of course, is the fact that all His pronouncement of wrath and destruction in the Bible is only ever toward evil, never good.
2) Abraham elaborated the truth that to destroy good would violate the fundamental perfection of God when he said, "Far be it from Thee to do such a thing, to slay the righteous with the wicked, so that the righteous and the wicked are treated alike. Far be it from Thee! Shall not the Judge of all the earth deal justly?"
In the story of the Exodus, the nation Israel is a metaphor for the individual who is brought to the gates of promise, fails for lack of faith and is turned back into the wilderness until sufficient unbelieving parts are destroyed such that Israel is brought back to the land of promise with faith created from hardship.
I question whether the whole "invited" thing is even Biblical, though it's a popular notion today.Draw in this instance might indicate compulsion, but other Scriptures (i.e. James 4:8) make it clear that man comes to Him by their own will after being invited.
I believe "the elect" are elected not simply for heaven-some-day, but rather for God's purposes in furthering His Kingdom here and now, during the earthly phase of their existence, in whatever age that happens to be (AD70 or otherwise). As far as salvation goes, all mankind are elected. As far as believing and living a life of service to God before physical death, not everyone is part of the elect.If Jesus already has come, then who were His elect (BibleGateway.com - Keyword[bless and do not curse]Search: elect gather )?
You mean that partial salvation says that God is incompetent? This sounds similar to osas theology...
If the coming has already happened, then the "all" only applies to those who were living before that. If your reasoning is correct, after AD 70, everyone who has lived is excluded from renewal and therefore, inheritance.
Also, when the Scriptures say only God is good, they mean only He possesses absolute goodness.
Why do you say this?Exodus: "until sufficient unbelieving parts are destroyed") False
Hi Force,
Why do you say this?
First, a question: what is evil? How do you define evil?If good cannot be destroyed, how can evil?
First, a question: what is evil? How do you define evil?
Example: When the arrogant man is shamed and humiliated in the midst of his acting arrogant--say while he is showing off in front of a crowd--he suffers something internally. (We all knows what it feels like to be humiliated)
The next time the arrogant man feels the urge to be arrogant, he will also feel a twinge of constraint, remembering how he was formerly humiliated. Something has changed inside which is purely spiritual and ethereal--he didn't change physically, yet lost some of his arrogance. What makes up the content of this change? What changes took place, what did he lose (or gain?) that makes him slightly 'better' for his experience?
I submit that evil is destroyed, especially in light of the fact that evil MUST be destroyed from human essence because it's not allowed into the presence of God (see Rev 22:14-15 for example).
I'm not holding anything "in reserve" that I'm aware of. Just trying to engage in robust, honest discussion. What leads you to suspect I might be holding something in reserve?What I am curious to know is just what is it you are holding in reserve which you fear will be misconstrued.
I admit, I too am holding in reserve.
Ah, of course.....you are legion. After a time, your traits give you away, you know.How would you propose to destroy darkness?
As far as the man is concerned, it was the realization that what he thought was there was, in fact, not there.
I asked the question 'can God destroy good' to an audience with no mention of why I was asking. I didn't want them to know what I was working on because I know how fickle my fellow Christians are in matters of truth.
Now as to evil, it's again a matter of common sense that because God is wholly good and evil is good's opposite, that it is not only natural for God to destroy evil, but necessary that He do so.
I used examples in my last post to lead you to this conclusion, but apparently they didn't do the trick. In fact, the entire Bible is full of God's pronouncement of destruction of evil. The fact that you post lots of Scriptures tells me you're well versed in your knowledge of the Bible. I don't see how you can have read it and missed this fundamental principle, frankly.
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