Hello all. I am not a Baptist, but have some questions as it regards why the belief is so mainstream within the Baptist side of the house that tongues is not for the present day. As seen in I Corinthians and the second chapter of Acts, particularly, each man spoke in one of many languages from all regions from Cappedocia to Rome to proselyte Jews which were not his own; the text in the third and fourth verses reads "And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak in other tongues, as the Spirit gave the utterance."
Perhaps you of the Baptist fold might explain where in Scripture one might derive the cessation of this speaking of divers tongues as the beloved King James might say, and why it is popular in the Baptist circles.
Perhaps you of the Baptist fold might explain where in Scripture one might derive the cessation of this speaking of divers tongues as the beloved King James might say, and why it is popular in the Baptist circles.