Okay, according to your interpretation, from the two comes one.
ONE CHILD IS ALL THERE SHOULD EVER BE (FROM THE TWO).
(It certainly does not say "the two become many flesh"!)
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The two ultimately become one flesh in making a baby, not having intercourse.
I IMAGINE it might work IN CHURCH.
Scripture 5 times admonishes us to "Greet ye one another with a holy kiss," one time it reads: "KISS OF LOVE."
ACTUAL LOVING (touching) in church, imagine that!
Admonitions (PREACHING) would be to avoid any conditions where "lusting for" (adultery) could be carried out - no being together alone with someone other than one's spouse.
That's fine. But suppose a guy and a gal each married to someone else sat side by side IN A PEW and were kissing for a total of fifteen minutes during the sermon. Would that be ADULTERY? (No sexual intercourse involved, only kissing.)
The point being to actually show, express, feel, and celebrate LOVE.
Is God against such loving in church?
Also consider the situation where they are both single.
And the case of the young - I am of the mind that what one prescribes for teenage dating is "as much kissing and hugging as you want, but NOTHING ELSE."
What do you think?
May I ask how old you are?
The two ultimately become one flesh in making a baby, not having intercourse. A person just gratifying sexual desires is not becoming "one flesh" whether inside or outside marriage, at least not in any unified sense of the meaning behind God's Words about two becoming husband and wife.
Kissing on the lips or cheek as a greeting is no different than a hand shake unless one of the parties as desires towards the other person. Am unaware of any greeting custom where such a gesture involves tongue or open mouths or passion. In fact where the gesture is custom, it is even done between two people that despise each other- just as handshakes are. I do not think offering a holy kiss gives one grounds to lingering contact with a member of the opposite sex. If we are talking about an instance one's spouse witnessed and objected to - then I suggest one does not do that again regardless of what your intention was and because there was objection it probably was not a "holy kiss".
If you're going to make a pretense of scholarship, at the very least check a Strong's concordance. In all those instances of "kiss of love" or "kiss of peace," the Greek indicates phileo (brotherly affection) or agape, fully defined by Paul as an ethereal, pure, non-erotic love.
How does one know for sure that one is not transgressing the important Commandment against adultery? <Staff Edit>
But what are we to make of Matthew 5:28? (Jesus said): "whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart."
How is "lust" to be defined here? Surely one would have to actually WANT TO, nay, INTEND TO commit actual adultery for the "lust" to even begin to rise to the level of the actual act? (In parallel with the warning just prior that hating one's brother may lead to murder, so one should avoid it.)
One might do a lot of kissing and touching without any such intent - not only not to ever transgress the Commandment but to avoid any concerns about pregnancy and diseases.
And one could certainly "play around" without coveting, without wanting to make another person's spouse one's own.
Adultery under the law is sex with a married man or woman, or sex with a divorced man or woman. It's a deed and not a thought.
When King David lusted after a woman he saw taking a bath, he did not repent until he moved her husband out of the way, and laid with the woman.
But what did King David pray? "Create in me a clean heart O God". He had exercised his heart in an adulterous affair. If he had not committed the deed, iniquity would still be in his heart; he would still be unclean.
Lawyers/hypocrites look for loop holes and technicalities to get around the law, but Jesus made sure to squash it. Kissing and fondling without sexual activity is still of iniquity, and we cannot get around it.
My advice to the born again is to walk after the Spirit; purify your hearts and cleanse your hands.
Matthew 5:27-28
27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ 28 But I say to you that every one who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Given, simply kissing another woman may not constitute adultery in the fullest sense. But, according to Jesus, the adultery command was not meant to be limited to sexual intercourse alone. Lustful looking, thinking, kissing, etc all violate the command because the command was intended to protect marriage - all of these things harm marriage and so violate the command. So the question is not: "what constitutes adultery?" but "what violates this command?"
I asked this question before, but is there a presumption in this thread that in the mind of Christ, the replacement of the affection one should have for a spouse with affection for someone else is not adultery, even if there is no sexual activity involved? If my wife stops loving me and starts dating another man behind my back, even if they don't have sex...that's not adultery? Or just likes going out on dates with lots of different men? What, then, is that? Is that spiritually okay?
Matthew 5:27-28
27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ 28 But I say to you that every one who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
How does one know for sure that one is not transgressing the important Commandment against adultery?
How does one know for sure that one is not transgressing the important Commandment against adultery? <Staff Edit>
But what are we to make of Matthew 5:28? (Jesus said): "whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart."
How is "lust" to be defined here? Surely one would have to actually WANT TO, nay, INTEND TO commit actual adultery for the "lust" to even begin to rise to the level of the actual act? (In parallel with the warning just prior that hating one's brother may lead to murder, so one should avoid it.)
One might do a lot of kissing and touching without any such intent - not only not to ever transgress the Commandment but to avoid any concerns about pregnancy and diseases.
And one could certainly "play around" without coveting, without wanting to make another person's spouse one's own.
But it would be coveting someone who belonged to another. So you break the tenth commandment! How many men would spend time kissing another mans wife without having any form of lust rise up in them? Seems to me you may be trying to justify breaking commandmentsSo if I kiss her, say for 15 minutes, have I committed adultery? What if for half a minute? Suppose I accidentally kissed her in passing?
Certainly not all "sexual activities" (with someone married to another spouse) would be ADULTERY ?
Would you find nothing wrong with being married to someone who spent time passionately kissing another man?Question is, and someone might call it "casuistry," what exactly has to happen for there to be adultery? What constitutes the "lust" that must be (is) prohibited, what precisely are the (sorts of) DESIRES that must be avoided?
Isn't it possible for someone to desire ONLY to kiss someone who happens to be married to someone else (in contrast to desiring to kiss only that someone) with absolutely no desire to be married to the person for instance, and would such a desire be correctly forbidden in all cases?
Is "anything sexual" (like prolonged passionate kissing) to be reserved only for the marriage bed? And is that only because some presume or guess or somehow come up with the idea it would be detrimental to marriage? Without ever trying it?
Would you find nothing wrong with being married to someone who spent time passionately kissing another man?
Would you find nothing wrong with being married to someone who spent time passionately kissing another man?
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