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Can morality exist without God cont..

Ed1wolf

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Aristotle is a huge and influential exception. It took the reintroduction of Aristotle in the West to really get an intellectual rebirth going.

IMV, it wasn't Christianity so much as Aristotle that made modern science possible. Christianity had miracles, supernatural realms, talking snakes, looking beyond "this world", and other trappings of Plato and mythology. Christianity literally demonized "this world" with its talk of floating demons in the sky that rule "this world". There's no sufficient reason to think that Christianity had what it took to produce science, other than the influence of Aristotle and some of the other Greeks, such as Democritus. Primarily, we have Aristotle to thank for the modern naturalism that is a precondition for science. Aristotle helped to bring Christianity down to earth much as he did for Plato. He might also have done so for the pagans if they hadn't been replaced by Christians.


eudaimonia,

Mark
While his systematic explanation and categorizing of the laws of logic did help in the development of modern science, he was not a major player in the overall founding of modern experimental science and especially the greek society as a whole because they did not believe in an intelligible and orderly world. While Christians considered miracles very rare, that is why they were called miracles. The Bible covers human history from the BB to around 100 AD, if you count the number miracles in that time period it is actually a rather small number. Also, the miracles of God were always for specific purposes not just arbitrary "magic tricks". And demons did not create any new non existent organisms, the greek gods did such as unicorns and minotaurs etc. The Bible plainly teaches that the world is a primarily natural law world as seen in Jeremiah 33:25. And the Bible also teaches that God is a God of order. The Greek gods were capricious and arbitrary and did "miracles" for practically any reason including for their own amusement. And in fact purposely created chaos, the Christian God did not and in fact tried to impose moral order thru His moral laws. Also only Christiantiy teaches that God is totally separate from His creation, while hindusim and forms of animism teach that god IS nature, thereby also preventing the development of modern science because Nature was considered sacred.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
Not in scientific detail but Genesis 1:1 states the universe had a definite beginning from no prior material. Which is what the BB plainly implies.

de: The big bang does say the universe as we know it had a beginning, however there's nothing in it that says there was no prior material.

It plainly implies it, if you run the BB backwards you come to a point with no dimensions, ie nothing.

de: Saying the universe had a beginning is a single point of consistency with the genesis narrative, and virtually every other creation myth in history.

No, no other major religion teaches that nothing material or other universe existed prior to the beginning. Almost all other religions teach that the universe was created out of some pre-existing material or pre-existing universe. Sometimes out of some preexisting chaos like the Babylonians, or that the universe is just an illusion and is in fact, some type of ultimately impersonal being, like Hinduism and many other irrational beliefs.


de: Just because we can all agree the universe had a beginning doesn't mean your god had anything to do with it, much less him actually being a part of the big bang theory.

He was not part of the BB, He caused it and created it. And only the Bible out of all the religious books actually taught the three main characteristics of the BB theory 3500 years before science confirmed it. It teaches that the universe had a definite beginning, is expanding, and is running down energetically. No other religious book teaches all three characteristics. Of course, the human writers at the time did not understand completely what they were writing, but nevertheless it fits the science amazingly well. This is strong evidence that the Christian God is the creator of this universe and inspired His word to reveal it.


ed: It is a law of logic without which science would be impossible. Not all scientists agree that QM is causeless. Some think there is a physical cause that we have not discovered yet. Others say it is observer caused. But even if is causeless, the origin of a universe is plainly a macroevent for which QM does not apply. QM only applies at the subatomic or micro level.

de: If you read up on the big bang theory, virtually all scientists in the field agree the entire contents of the universe were compressed into an infinitely dense, incredibly small point. Physics as we know it break down at that point.

Exactly that is why it had to be a metaphysical/supernatural event.

de: This is not a matter of classical physics, this is most certainly a quantum mechanics issue.

No, QM requires an interval of time to occur, but there was no interval of time at t=0.


ed: But at t=0 there was no matter and energy so QM would not apply either. Most cosmologists agree that matter energy only came into existence at t>0. Also, quantum fluctuations require an interval of time to occur so at t=0 there was no time for a quantum fluctuation to occur.

de: This is a misunderstanding on your part, if the theory states the entire content of the universe was compressed into a single point, then it's necessary that matter and energy existed in that small point, otherwise there'd be no such thing as density, nor would there be anything to compress.
Yes, but they are referring to a point at t>0, at t=0 there was no matter and energy. Most cosmologists agree that matter and energy did not come into existence until after t=0.


ed: First, there is no evidence that those things exist. Second, nobody claims to have had a relationship with those things, millions claim to have had one with God.

de: There's also no evidence that your god exists.
Yes, there is, see above for just a small amount of the evidence. There are multiple other threads of evidence. Besides science and philosophical evidence there is also historical evidence.

de: As for your second statement, that's an appeal to popularity fallacy. Just because millions claim to have a relationship with god doesn't mean that god is real. Millions of Hindus believe they have a relationship with Lord Brahma, do you believe them Because there's just as much evidence for Lord Brahma as there is for your god too.

Sometimes popularity is correct. Most people believe that the earth is round, and that is correct. And combined with all the other evidence referenced above, makes it very likely that He exists. Hinduism has serious problems none of its writings teach anything that has been scientifically confirmed about the origin of the universe. For one thing it teaches an eternal universe which has been basically refuted by science. Also, it teaches that ultimately the origin of the universe is impersonal so there cannot be any purposes in the universe but science has confirmed that purposes exist in the universe, ie eyes are for seeing, ears are for hearing, and etc.


ed: No, there is no evidence for those beings and your attributes of those beings are made in hindsight and retrofitting. Gods attributes were discovered long prior to our discoveries about the characteristics of the universe. So such retrofitting with the universe is impossible.

de: Sure there's evidence, the universe exists, and therefore that serves as evidence for Clyde the invisible universe creating dragon. At least, it serves as evidence for Clyde as much as it does for your god.

No, see above.

de: On a more serious note, if you want to play the historical card in the second section of your paragraph, Hinduism is a far older religion than Christianity, and Judaism. Hinduism is the oldest continually practiced religion in history.

Yes, but the biblical evidence some of which is mentioned above points to the Christian God existing 13.8 bya. He knew what happened at the BB. Long before Hinduism.

de: So, if you want to play that card, then the Hindus have a better claim than you do as to god's "true nature" and attributes. People were worshipping Lord Brahma long before Yahweh was even invented.

The universe is a diversity within a unity which reflects the characteristics of its cause just like any artistic creation, ie the Triune Christian God. The Hindu god is a pure unity, ie the One. Therefore it is unlikely to have been the cause of this universe.


ed: You are assuming what we are trying to prove. Please explain how purpose can ultimately come from purposelessness. Not the evolutionary processes because they may be guided by a purposeful God. Give a non-biological example of such a process.

de: Purpose is only given by things with consciousness. When I was a newborn, the concepts of purpose and whatnot had never occurred to me, I was too young to comprehend those things. However, as I got older and found things I enjoyed and wanted to do, I gave my own life purpose.

Exactly, that is my point, that is why the universe and life could only have been created by a conscious personal Being. Purpose exists in the universe, ie the purpose of eyes is for seeing and ears' purpose is to hear and etc.

de: Quite frankly, an externally imposed purpose is meaningless at best, and totalitarian at worst. If that's what you wish for, I don't envy your worldview.

It is the only way to guarantee that you reach your maximum potential. For example say some primitive human was transported to the future and found a car and decided cars are for sleeping in. But then the automaker finds him sleeping in the car and decides to tell him that cars can be driven 100 miles an hour and used to travel hundreds of miles so the primitive human can basically travel the world. Just imagine if he had never discovered the true purpose of a car his life would have been limited to just how far and fast he could travel on foot. So making your own purpose can be very limiting.


ed: No, the Christian scientists were inspired by their faith to believe in a rational and orderly universe because they believed in a rational and orderly Creator. Read the writings Kepler, Galileo, Newton, and many others. They knew that if the creator was either non existent or chaotic then so would the universe be chaotic. Just as the ancient greek gods were or the spirits the animists believed in. Read Loren Eisleys "Darwin's Century".

de: Yes, but the important thing about science and those discoveries is that what they discovered is true regardless of a god existing or not. They can credit god all they want, it doesn't matter.

Yes, but according to Eisley and other historians of science they would have probably never have made those discoveries without believing in the Christian worldview. And modern science would probably never have come into existence if not for Christianity.


ed: No, they wrote the description of the law they did not write the law themselves. If there was no law then there would be nothing to describe. I am not referring to scientific laws, I am referring to the laws of physics or nature. They exist independently of what scientists say or do. Scientists discover them and then try to describe them. Not always correctly of course.

de: No, the law describes an aspect of the universe, not the other way around.
No, most scientists agree that the laws of physics ARE an aspect of the universe. We just describe what those laws do.

de: A scientist may discover some phenomenon or aspect of the universe as we know it, and write a law or theory to describe what they have discovered (It would likely start as a hypothesis and progress from there, but I'm simplifying the post for brevity).
Yes, and that phenomenon is discovered to be a law of the universe.


ed: Because without an orderly and lawful universe then it would unintelligible thus making science impossible.

de: Which has nothing to do with a god existing. What makes you think a naturally occurring universe would be an utterly chaotic mess? You're making an unjustified assumption. Why wouldn't a naturally occurring universe operate in ways consistent with nature?

Yes, it does, because only intelligent personal beings can make things intelligible and orderly. Laws require a lawgiver, even Einstein said that. A naturally occurring universe is an impossibility as I demonstrated above.

ed: It could be just a realistic dream. No, He is very relevant. Without Him you have no rational basis for believing that what you are observing is objectively real.

de: Well, if you think it's plausible that this is all just a realistic dream, then what makes you think a god is required in the "real waking world"? If this is just a dream state, then perhaps god is just an aspect of your own dreams.

Yes, that is a possibility but as I state below, the most rational assumption given something that appears to be an objective reality when we look at it then there must be a correlation between the subject and the object which can most rationally be explained by a personal creator (a subject) creating objects.

de: In reality you have no demonstrable objective basis when you appeal to god. You have a claim that you can't demonstrate, whether this is all a dream or not.

Actually I can make a logical demonstration starting out with my own existence which is proven by Descartes statement "I think therefore I am". I will do it next post if you want me to.


ed: No, you need a correlation between what you are observing and what is actually there for real science to occur. And without a creator God you have to make an irrational leap of faith to believe that what you are seeing is real.

de: Your argument is a complete non sequitur. The universe is as it is, whether a god created it or not.

Your assertion that a god is required for me to believe what I'm seeing is real is utter nonsense. Why is that god required for me to justifiably believe I'm currently typing this message on my keyboard? All the available evidence pretty conclusively shows that I'm typing this message on my keyboard.

No, because you don't know if there is a correlation between what you are looking at and what is actually there. But Christians know there is a correlation as demonstrated above.

de: Whether there is or is not a god, I'm still typing this same message on the same keyboard. All the evidence I have available to me is exactly the same. So why would a lack of a god's existence give me credible reason to believe I'm not experiencing reality?

It makes no sense at all, your logic does not follow.
No, you need to logically demonstrate that that keyboard objectively exists, you cannot do that if God did not create this universe because there would be no subject-object correlation.
 
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It plainly implies it, if you run the BB backwards you come to a point with no dimensions, ie nothing.

It implies no such thing. It can't logically imply such a thing. Nothing is a contingent concept that doesn't exist in reality as an equivalent.

BB always implies something... only different state of that something.

If you keep insisting on nothing, then you need to point to relevant scientific consensus literature to indicate that such is the case.
 
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Dave Ellis

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It plainly implies it, if you run the BB backwards you come to a point with no dimensions, ie nothing.

No, it doesn't imply any such thing. If you run it backwards you have all of the mass and energy of the universe condensed into a very small area.

Nowhere in the big bang theory does it say this came from nothingness. That's a common misunderstanding of apologists who don't know what they're talking about. The only people who think the universe came from nothing are the Christians and members of other Abrahamic faiths.

We can trace it back to an infinitely dense point. What happened before then (or if before even makes sense to say, given that time as we know it started then) is unknown.

No, no other major religion teaches that nothing material or other universe existed prior to the beginning. Almost all other religions teach that the universe was created out of some pre-existing material or pre-existing universe. Sometimes out of some preexisting chaos like the Babylonians, or that the universe is just an illusion and is in fact, some type of ultimately impersonal being, like Hinduism and many other irrational beliefs.

You're simply wrong. However, even if you were right, so what?

He was not part of the BB, He caused it and created it. And only the Bible out of all the religious books actually taught the three main characteristics of the BB theory 3500 years before science confirmed it. It teaches that the universe had a definite beginning, is expanding, and is running down energetically. No other religious book teaches all three characteristics. Of course, the human writers at the time did not understand completely what they were writing, but nevertheless it fits the science amazingly well. This is strong evidence that the Christian God is the creator of this universe and inspired His word to reveal it.

If he caused and created it, then he was part of it.

I've already asked you to show where the bible says the universe is expanding and headed towards heat death. You have failed to do so thus far.

And if you think the bible fits science amazingly well, you clearly have a very low understanding of science.

Exactly that is why it had to be a metaphysical/supernatural event.

Really? Ok, run me through the logic of why it had to be supernatural.

So far, it looks like you're making a run of the mill argument from ignorance. How do you know there are no other alternatives? How did you go about proving the supernatural?

No, QM requires an interval of time to occur, but there was no interval of time at t=0.

We don't know the conditions that were present then, however we do know that classical physics could not possibly have applied due to the density of matter that we're talking about.

It's hard to wrap your head around temporal issues when we're talking about existence without time. However, quantum mechanics is very weird, especially when it comes to temporal issues.

Yes, but they are referring to a point at t>0, at t=0 there was no matter and energy. Most cosmologists agree that matter and energy did not come into existence until after t=0.

No, that's a misunderstanding. I suggest you read a science book and pay less attention to apologists with no scientific education.

Yes, there is, see above for just a small amount of the evidence. There are multiple other threads of evidence. Besides science and philosophical evidence there is also historical evidence.

Nothing you have presented so far serves as evidence. You can't use any of it to demonstrate there is a god. You said yourself you can't prove that a god exists. If you have so much evidence, then why can't it be proven?

Sometimes popularity is correct. Most people believe that the earth is round, and that is correct. And combined with all the other evidence referenced above, makes it very likely that He exists. Hinduism has serious problems none of its writings teach anything that has been scientifically confirmed about the origin of the universe. For one thing it teaches an eternal universe which has been basically refuted by science. Also, it teaches that ultimately the origin of the universe is impersonal so there cannot be any purposes in the universe but science has confirmed that purposes exist in the universe, ie eyes are for seeing, ears are for hearing, and etc.

Sure, sometimes popular ideas are correct. However the fact they are popular has no bearing whatsoever on their truth value. So no, the fact a lot of people believe it doesn't make it any more likely that he exists at all.

In fact, given the ridiculous amount of conflicting opinions about what god is that does serve as evidence that "god" is something that person is imagining. If the same being was giving a consistent message to everyone, then there would be far less disparity in regards to a basic question of "what does god want?" or "what is god?"

And actually, the universe as we know it will exist eternally, however in its final condition it will be at a maximum state of entropy. The universe will still be here, it'll just be cold and dark.

Lastly, the "eyes are for seeing, ears are for hearing, therefore the universe has purpose" argument is laughably bad. Just because something does something, doesn't mean god created it with a specific purpose.

No, see above.

I have seen above, and your arguments aren't getting any better.

Yes, but the biblical evidence some of which is mentioned above points to the Christian God existing 13.8 bya. He knew what happened at the BB. Long before Hinduism.

The actual historical evidence leads us to believe that Yahweh was worshipped as a regional god in the polytheistic Canaanite pantheon starting somewhere roughly around 1,200BC - 1,000BC, give or take. Over time the Israelites became Monotheistic and the Yahweh that most people would recognize today came about around the time of the Babylonian Exile.

The reality is, the god of Judaism isn't nearly as old as the Pyramids are. That can be demonstrated. It's also plenty of reason to believe that humans invented him, and not the other way around.

The universe is a diversity within a unity which reflects the characteristics of its cause just like any artistic creation, ie the Triune Christian God. The Hindu god is a pure unity, ie the One. Therefore it is unlikely to have been the cause of this universe.

I don't see how either one makes it less likely or more likely that the god in question created the universe.

Exactly, that is my point, that is why the universe and life could only have been created by a conscious personal Being. Purpose exists in the universe, ie the purpose of eyes is for seeing and ears' purpose is to hear and etc.

You're asserting that because something happens to work that it was purposefully designed to do a task. There's simply no reason to believe that.

Let me turn around your example and put it another way... What's the purpose of cancer cells in children? They very effectively reproduce and spread, often killing the child.

Would you say god created childhood leukemia with the purpose of killing children in agony, or would you call it a product of nature that just does what it does? So what makes you think the other naturally occurring mechanisms in our body which allow us to see and hear are any different, apart from one is negative and the others are positive?

They are all things our body does. You have not demonstrated an outside source is required to bestow purpose on our various body parts in order for them to do things.

The only purpose I'm aware of is the purpose we give ourselves. And frankly, that's the only purpose worth worrying about.

It is the only way to guarantee that you reach your maximum potential. For example say some primitive human was transported to the future and found a car and decided cars are for sleeping in. But then the automaker finds him sleeping in the car and decides to tell him that cars can be driven 100 miles an hour and used to travel hundreds of miles so the primitive human can basically travel the world. Just imagine if he had never discovered the true purpose of a car his life would have been limited to just how far and fast he could travel on foot. So making your own purpose can be very limiting.

Except you haven't demonstrated that your example is analogous to the actual real world.

What happens if god doesn't actually exist? You could find yourself focusing on the purpose of some beat up old car, while people who have liberated themselves from that mindset will be focusing on the wonders of aircraft and spaceflight instead.

Yes, but according to Eisley and other historians of science they would have probably never have made those discoveries without believing in the Christian worldview. And modern science would probably never have come into existence if not for Christianity.

Nonsense. Those discoveries would have been made regardless. Even if you could make a plausible case that an atheist version of Isaac Newton wouldn't have created his laws of physics, somebody else would have figured it out.

If anything, Christianity has a long history of doing everything it can to stifle and prevent the progression of modern science. Right back from the days of Galileo up to modern day stem cell research.

No, most scientists agree that the laws of physics ARE an aspect of the universe. We just describe what those laws do.

Repeating the same wrong thing over and over again doesn't make it right. Pick up a science book sometime.

Yes, it does, because only intelligent personal beings can make things intelligible and orderly. Laws require a lawgiver, even Einstein said that. A naturally occurring universe is an impossibility as I demonstrated above.

Does god operate by certain laws? I would imagine you'd agree that god can't violate the laws of logic (for example he can't do things that are logically impossible), likewise I would imagine you'd agree it's impossible for god to be evil.

If so, who created those laws? It couldn't possibly be god because if the laws are self imposed then he could change those laws at will. There's nothing stopping him from saying he can now do things that are logically impossible, and committing unspeakable evil.

Therefore if the laws are self imposed, it's not impossible for him to do logically impossible things, or evil. He just decides to refrain from doing them. However, if those things are actually impossible for god to do, then that law must come from a higher source that god is subordinate to. What's that source?

Or, perhaps we go with a more reasonable and infinitely more justifiable solution that nature works the way that nature works. It's demonstrable that things can achieve natural order and symmetry without any intelligent interference, no god is required for that.

Either way, you haven't demonstrated that a naturally occurring universe is an impossibility. You've made the claim and backed it with some very dubious or outright fallacious arguments to back your case.

Yes, that is a possibility but as I state below, the most rational assumption given something that appears to be an objective reality when we look at it then there must be a correlation between the subject and the object which can most rationally be explained by a personal creator (a subject) creating objects.

There is literally no way to rationally make that connection without demonstrating that such a being even exists. You yourself have even stated that it's impossible to prove. Therefore you can't possibly call connecting everything to a being that can't even be demonstrated to exist rational at all. It's ludicrous.

Actually I can make a logical demonstration starting out with my own existence which is proven by Descartes statement "I think therefore I am". I will do it next post if you want me to.

Go for it

No, because you don't know if there is a correlation between what you are looking at and what is actually there. But Christians know there is a correlation as demonstrated above.

I have every good reason at my disposal to believe that I'm experiencing reality. Regardless, even if I am just a brain in a vat or living in the matrix, it doesn't matter. The world I experience right now is the only one I have access to, and will likely ever have access to. Therefore given the absence of evidence for the idea that this world isn't real, I am best served by living my life as if this is actual reality. I have no reason to believe otherwise.

As for Christians, you're in the same boat I am. If we are actually in the matrix you would also not know it. Your god, Jesus and everything to do with your religion is also a part of the matrix. You have no idea what would exist in the "real world" in that hypothetical scenario.

Simply believing that your god exists doesn't free you from that scenario if the world we experience isn't actually real. Your god would just be another aspect of a "false reality".

No, you need to logically demonstrate that that keyboard objectively exists, you cannot do that if God did not create this universe because there would be no subject-object correlation.

A universe created by Clyde the invisible universe creating dragon also contains objectively real keyboards. Without Clyde there's no subject-object correlation.

See, I can do it too. It doesn't make the argument any more valid by plugging in the name of any other hypothetical creator being.

Are you really trying to claim that without the existence of your particular god that my keyboard isn't really a keyboard? I have to give you points for coming up with a unique argument, but it's one of the worst I've ever had presented to me. It simply makes no sense at all.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
Since you have no objective moral standard you cannot objectively make such a judgement. All you can say is that the holocaust makes you feel bad and you prefer that it not happen again. But you cannot make a rationally objective judgement against it. Because Hitler was just acting on his feelings too, you have no objective way to determine whose feelings are better. They are just feelings.

de: Yes, I do have an objective moral standard. The consequences to actions are objective, consequential ethics builds upon those objective consequences and produces a moral code. It's also one grounded in reality, which I view as pretty important!

I am not referring to the consequences, I am referring to your interpretation of the consequences and the ethics that are used to judge those consequences. A pro-abortion person thinks killing an unborn child has good consequences. A prolife person believes that the consequences for the child and society are bad, ie death for the child and cheapening of human life for the society. How do you determine which consequence is good or bad? You base it on your feelings. You may feel that that mothers have absolute control over their bodies, even if another human temporarily resides in their bodies. Christians believe that we don't have absolute control over our bodies especially when another person could be harmed by what you do to your body. Christians believe that humans have infinite value based on God's valuing of humans based on His objectively existing character. The pro-abortion person believes humans only have instrumental value, ie what can they do for me, similar to the view of blacks under 19th century slavery.

de: On the other hand, you don't have an objective standard (well, not counting when you use consequential ethics which you invariably do throughout your day to day life). God is not an objective standard, god is purported to be a conscious being, and therefore that makes his will and commandments subjective. They are god's subjective will, that's what he wants, those are his feelings.

His moral character IS an objective standard. It exists outside the human mind, therefore it exists objectively relative to humans.

de: You may view them as important, however important does not equate to objective. Objective is something that is true independently of a conscious mind.

It does exist and is true independently of human minds, therefore it is objective relative to humans.


ed: We determine it by using our moral conscience and our relationship with God. Just like you determine whether to trust your spouse, you cannot prove that your spouse is trustworthy, so I cannot prove that God is good, but my relationship and experience confirms it to my conscience.

de: So you use your own moral conscience to judge god as a good being, is that correct? Presumably you have come to this conclusion by using some kind of criteria? For example, what is it about god that causes you to judge him as good?

His Words and deeds.
 
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His moral character IS an objective standard. It exists outside the human mind, therefore it exists objectively relative to humans.

Some other human being's moral character exists outside of my mind, but that doesn't make it an objective moral standard. All it means is that someone else's moral character exists objectively in the sense that that someone exists objectively. That does nothing to show that it is an objective moral standard.

The same thing is true for God. God's objective existence would do nothing in itself to show that his moral character is an objective moral standard for human beings. It could still be entirely subjective for God.


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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Some other human being's moral character exists outside of my mind, but that doesn't make it an objective moral standard. All it means is that someone else's moral character exists objectively in the sense that that someone exists objectively. That does nothing to show that it is an objective moral standard.

A police officer is a human being just like you, but if he catches you breaking the law, he can arrest you and you will be brought before a judge.

Why can he do this? Because he has been invested with power and authority to do so.

You can't go around arresting people but the police officer can because he has the authority and power to do so and he is a human being.

God, has power and authority also, but not like the police officer. The officer has authority and power conferred to him by other humans also under authority, but God's power and authority are not conferred to Him by anyone, for He is the supreme and ultimate authority from whom all earthy power and authority is derived. He knows the thoughts and intents of men's hearts and thus judges perfectly, unlike the officer and earthly judge who must collect and add up the evidence and draw inferences and conclusions from them as best they can.

The same thing is true for God. God's objective existence would do nothing in itself to show that his moral character is an objective moral standard for human beings.

No one said it would. But the divine command theorist would say that God has shown us His moral character via His divine commands i.e. love God with all your heart, mind, soul and love your neighbor as yourself. It is God's self disclosure via revelation that is the means by which we come to know that there is a moral standard existing independently of us to which we are accountable.

I would add that God in addition, before ever uttering a command, built into human beings a moral conscience which enables us to know certain things regarding morality intuitively, so that if one violates this conscience (which Christianity teaches can happen because men also have the capacity to choose to do so thereby making them culpable moral agents), then they are without excuse.


That is why Jesus said, "“I tell you, my friends, do not fear those who kill the body, and after that have nothing more that they can do. But I will warn you whom to fear: fear him who, after he has killed, has authority to cast into hell. Yes, I tell you, fear him!"

He said plainly it is a matter of authority.


It could still be entirely subjective for God.


eudaimonia,

Mark

Of course God's divine commands are subjective in the sense that they are expressions of His attitude and will regarding certain things. That is why Divine Command theory is a form of ethical subjectivism.

Some would ask, "why does what God say matter to me, and why should I care?"

In response I would say that God's thoughts for us are good, and His plans for us perfect.

"For I know the thoughts that I think toward you, saith the LORD, thoughts of peace, and not of evil, to give you an expected end."

So if anyone desires good days and peace and deliverance from the evil of this fallen world, then they should fly to God and allow Him to take them up into His loving arms.

Of course if that is not appealing or something one desires, and if they are apathetic and unconcerned about having God's best, then they may settle for any number of lesser goods and even evils that are to be found in abundance in this life and God will respect that choice. Adam and Eve made that fateful decision many years ago and it caused the fall and we, their children, are suffering the consequences. The Pharisees thought they knew better than Jesus about what was good and how life should be lived and so Jesus honored their choice.

Men today are going through life making the same choices. God works providentially according to His good pleasure to bring about that some seek Him and find Him and the finding is predicated on certain conditions being fulfilled. Others are left to their devices and choices and never find Him.
 
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Dave Ellis

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I am not referring to the consequences, I am referring to your interpretation of the consequences and the ethics that are used to judge those consequences.

Doesn't matter. While it is true that your interpretation of the consequences is subjective, the consequences themselves are objective and serve as a legitimate basis for building a moral code.

A pro-abortion person thinks killing an unborn child has good consequences.

Not necessarily. They could view it as the lesser of two evils for example. There aren't many people out there that are overjoyed about the prospects of getting an abortion.

A prolife person believes that the consequences for the child and society are bad, ie death for the child and cheapening of human life for the society. How do you determine which consequence is good or bad? You base it on your feelings.

You weigh the objective consequences for both acts. That is possible to do without polluting the decision with emotionally charged arguments.

You may feel that that mothers have absolute control over their bodies, even if another human temporarily resides in their bodies. Christians believe that we don't have absolute control over our bodies especially when another person could be harmed by what you do to your body.

What is freedom if you can't even have freedom over yourself?

Christians believe that humans have infinite value based on God's valuing of humans based on His objectively existing character.

Well, they claim that. Then they turn around and are perfectly ok with bombing those darn muslims because they're in the way of the oil wells. At best, you can claim Christians believe humans have infinite value when it's convenient for the worldview they want to hold. When it's inconvenient they're perfectly ok with ending millions of human lives. It's a very hypocritical position.

The pro-abortion person believes humans only have instrumental value, ie what can they do for me, similar to the view of blacks under 19th century slavery.

Not necessarily, in my case I believe human life is very important and precious assuming the person is healthy enough to have a reasonably good quality of life.

I don't consider a clump of cells a human life simply because they have human DNA. Likewise, if a grown human has terminal stomach cancer and can only expect to live out their remaining months confined to bed in extreme agony, it's simply the humane thing to do to allow them to end their needless suffering. We do it for dogs and cats because we love those dogs and cats. Humans on the other hand aren't privy to those same acts of compassion, largely due to the efforts of Christians.

His moral character IS an objective standard. It exists outside the human mind, therefore it exists objectively relative to humans.

You are purposefully twisting the definition of objective to suit your argument. This has been pointed out to you before, and you continue using this argument. At this point, I can only call it what it is, intellectual dishonesty.

The "human" mind is irrelevant. All that matters is if something is the product of a mind or not. If it is the product of a mind (god, human or animal) then it is by definition subjective. If something is true independently of a mind, then it is objective.

Attempting to twist that definition to suit your needs doesn't make your argument any more valid.

It does exist and is true independently of human minds, therefore it is objective relative to humans.

No, it isn't. See above.

His Words and deeds.

You're still not describing HOW you reached your conclusion. Walk me through the process.

Give an example of his words or deeds, then describe how you have come to judge that word or deed as good?
 
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A police officer is a human being just like you, but if he catches you breaking the law, he can arrest you and you will be brought before a judge.

Why can he do this? Because he has been invested with power and authority to do so.

You can't go around arresting people but the police officer can because he has the authority and power to do so and he is a human being.

The law and a moral code are not necessarily the same thing. Laws can be based on moral concepts, however many laws are based around keeping an orderly society and aren't really based on any moral code. For example, traffic laws. There's nothing immoral if a society had no traffic laws, however there would likely be a lot more traffic accidents.

Likewise, there are no laws against some things that are clearly immoral. Lying to people (short of fraud or perjury) is generally considered immoral, however it's legal.

Cops arrest people who have broken the law, not those who have violated a moral code.

God, has power and authority also, but not like the police officer. The officer has authority and power conferred to him by other humans also under authority, but God's power and authority are not conferred to Him by anyone, for He is the supreme and ultimate authority from whom all earthy power and authority is derived. He knows the thoughts and intents of men's hearts and thus judges perfectly, unlike the officer and earthly judge who must collect and add up the evidence and draw inferences and conclusions from them as best they can.

It's a general concept in civilized society that the ruler of a society should govern only when they are given a mandate to do so by the people who are being governed. The system you are describing god with is known as totalitarianism.

No one said it would. But the divine command theorist would say that God has shown us His moral character via His divine commands i.e. love God with all your heart, mind, soul and love your neighbor as yourself.

Forced or compelled love of the leader is also a primary tenet of a totalitarian system. Christopher Hitchens aptly described this type of system as a "Celestial North Korea"

It is God's self disclosure via revelation that is the means by which we come to know that there is a moral standard existing independently of us to which we are accountable.

Is god also accountable to this moral standard?

I would add that God in addition, before ever uttering a command, built into human beings a moral conscience which enables us to know certain things regarding morality intuitively, so that if one violates this conscience (which Christianity teaches can happen because men also have the capacity to choose to do so thereby making them culpable moral agents), then they are without excuse.

Then how do you explain sociopaths?

And for healthy people, what is the process we use to determine what is good and what is evil? You said god gave us the ability to figure it out, so explain that process to me. How do we reach moral judgments?

That is why Jesus said, "“I tell you, my friends, do not fear those who kill the body, and after that have nothing more that they can do. But I will warn you whom to fear: fear him who, after he has killed, has authority to cast into hell. Yes, I tell you, fear him!"

If god is the supreme moral agent, why would he have invented such a hideous place as hell?

Of course God's divine commands are subjective in the sense that they are expressions of His attitude and will regarding certain things. That is why Divine Command theory is a form of ethical subjectivism.

Agreed

Some would ask, "why does what God say matter to me, and why should I care?"

In response I would say that God's thoughts for us are good, and His plans for us perfect.

"For I know the thoughts that I think toward you, saith the LORD, thoughts of peace, and not of evil, to give you an expected end."

So if anyone desires good days and peace and deliverance from the evil of this fallen world, then they should fly to God and allow Him to take them up into His loving arms.

So you're saying everyone that believes in god has a generally peaceful experience in life and are generally immune to evil acts? If not, then why is god's "perfect" plan failing? And if it's failing, how can you call it perfect?

Of course if that is not appealing or something one desires, and if they are apathetic and unconcerned about having God's best, then they may settle for any number of lesser goods and even evils that are to be found in abundance in this life and God will respect that choice. Adam and Eve made that fateful decision many years ago and it caused the fall and we, their children, are suffering the consequences.

Is it moral to punish people for the crimes of their ancestors? If your great grandfather murdered someone, do you deserve punishment?

The Pharisees thought they knew better than Jesus about what was good and how life should be lived and so Jesus honored their choice.

If you believe the biblical narrative, the pharisees had to act the way they did or god's plan wouldn't have worked. Jesus being murdered was a key part. Therefore the pharisees attitudes must have been preordained by god as it was part of his plan, and therefore ultimately god's responsibility

Men today are going through life making the same choices. God works providentially according to His good pleasure to bring about that some seek Him and find Him and the finding is predicated on certain conditions being fulfilled. Others are left to their devices and choices and never find Him.

What about people who make a genuine effort to try to find god, and never do? Does god simply not care about, or willfully abandon those people?
 
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Ed1wolf said:
It plainly implies it, if you run the BB backwards you come to a point with no dimensions, ie nothing.

dev: It implies no such thing. It can't logically imply such a thing. Nothing is a contingent concept that doesn't exist in reality as an equivalent.

BB always implies something... only different state of that something.

If you keep insisting on nothing, then you need to point to relevant scientific consensus literature to indicate that such is the case.
No, read Dr. Donald Goldsmith's article in the Nov. 2007 Natural History magazine. He said that the majority of cosmologists agree that the big bang brought matter and energy and time into existence. So at time=0, there was no matter, energy, or time, ie nothing.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
It plainly implies it, if you run the BB backwards you come to a point with no dimensions, ie nothing.

de: No, it doesn't imply any such thing. If you run it backwards you have all of the mass and energy of the universe condensed into a very small area.

de: Nowhere in the big bang theory does it say this came from nothingness. That's a common misunderstanding of apologists who don't know what they're talking about. The only people who think the universe came from nothing are the Christians and members of other Abrahamic faiths.

We can trace it back to an infinitely dense point. What happened before then (or if before even makes sense to say, given that time as we know it started then) is unknown.

Fraid so, see my post 431 in response to Devolved's post 423.


ed: No, no other major religion teaches that nothing material or other universe existed prior to the beginning. Almost all other religions teach that the universe was created out of some pre-existing material or pre-existing universe. Sometimes out of some preexisting chaos like the Babylonians, or that the universe is just an illusion and is in fact, some type of ultimately impersonal being, like Hinduism and many other irrational beliefs.

de: You're simply wrong. However, even if you were right, so what?

If I am wrong prove it. The reason I mention it is because that is what the BB theory plainly implies see my post to Devolved.


ed: He was not part of the BB, He caused it and created it. And only the Bible out of all the religious books actually taught the three main characteristics of the BB theory 3500 years before science confirmed it. It teaches that the universe had a definite beginning, is expanding, and is running down energetically. No other religious book teaches all three characteristics. Of course, the human writers at the time did not understand completely what they were writing, but nevertheless it fits the science amazingly well. This is strong evidence that the Christian God is the creator of this universe and inspired His word to reveal it.

de: If he caused and created it, then he was part of it.
That does not follow. In fact that is logically impossible. That would mean He created Himself which is a logical impossibility.

de: I've already asked you to show where the bible says the universe is expanding and headed towards heat death. You have failed to do so thus far.

And if you think the bible fits science amazingly well, you clearly have a very low understanding of science.
Fraid so, see my earlier post in response to you above where I provide the verses.


ed: Exactly that is why it had to be a metaphysical/supernatural event.

de: Really? Ok, run me through the logic of why it had to be supernatural.

Because the laws of physics/nature breakdown/disappear at that point, therefore some other non-natural/supernatural force caused it.

de: So far, it looks like you're making a run of the mill argument from ignorance. How do you know there are no other alternatives? How did you go about proving the supernatural?
I never said I could PROVE the supernatural but the evidence strongly points in that direction as I demonstrated above.


ed: No, QM requires an interval of time to occur, but there was no interval of time at t=0.

de: We don't know the conditions that were present then, however we do know that classical physics could not possibly have applied due to the density of matter that we're talking about.

It's hard to wrap your head around temporal issues when we're talking about existence without time. However, quantum mechanics is very weird, especially when it comes to temporal issues.
Nevertheless from all the evidence we know about it, it points to the fact that it cannot occur without an interval of time. Therefore a quantum fluctuation could not have caused the BB.


ed: Yes, but they are referring to a point at t>0, at t=0 there was no matter and energy. Most cosmologists agree that matter and energy did not come into existence until after t=0.

de: No, that's a misunderstanding. I suggest you read a science book and pay less attention to apologists with no scientific education.

I did, read the article by Dr. Donald Goldsmith in the Nov. 2007 issue of the Natural History magazine he writes that most cosmologists agree that all matter and energy came into existence at the BB.


ed: Yes, there is, see above for just a small amount of the evidence. There are multiple other threads of evidence. Besides science and philosophical evidence there is also historical evidence.

de: Nothing you have presented so far serves as evidence. You can't use any of it to demonstrate there is a god. You said yourself you can't prove that a god exists. If you have so much evidence, then why can't it be proven?

While God cannot be proven with absolute certainty He can be proven as well as you can prove that a chair can hold your weight before sitting on it. You can't even prove that you are a real person that I am communicating with on the internet. You could just be a realistic AI. The only thing that can be proven with certainty is your own existence to yourself.

ed: Sometimes popularity is correct. Most people believe that the earth is round, and that is correct. And combined with all the other evidence referenced above, makes it very likely that He exists. Hinduism has serious problems none of its writings teach anything that has been scientifically confirmed about the origin of the universe. For one thing it teaches an eternal universe which has been basically refuted by science. Also, it teaches that ultimately the origin of the universe is impersonal so there cannot be any purposes in the universe but science has confirmed that purposes exist in the universe, ie eyes are for seeing, ears are for hearing, and etc.

de: Sure, sometimes popular ideas are correct. However the fact they are popular has no bearing whatsoever on their truth value. So no, the fact a lot of people believe it doesn't make it any more likely that he exists at all.

Most all people agree that torturing babies is wrong, so are you saying that in fact torturing babies is not wrong, ie that the majority is wrong concerning that?


de: In fact, given the ridiculous amount of conflicting opinions about what god is that does serve as evidence that "god" is something that person is imagining. If the same being was giving a consistent message to everyone, then there would be far less disparity in regards to a basic question of "what does god want?" or "what is god?"

Not the Christian God, there is an objective source of information about the Christian God, the bible. Most all Christians that agree on the infallible authority of the bible agree on the characteristics of God.


de: And actually, the universe as we know it will exist eternally, however in its final condition it will be at a maximum state of entropy. The universe will still be here, it'll just be cold and dark.

That is supposedly what will happen if the universe is a closed system with no intervention by the creator. But I have demonstrated otherwise see above.

de: Lastly, the "eyes are for seeing, ears are for hearing, therefore the universe has purpose" argument is laughably bad. Just because something does something, doesn't mean god created it with a specific purpose.

Ok provide an empirically observed example of an impersonal source of purpose. Throughout all of human experience only persons can create purpose.

End of part 1.
 
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Eudaimonist

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No, read Dr. Donald Goldsmith's article in the Nov. 2007 Natural History magazine.

Do you have a link to the full article? I can't seem to find one with Google.


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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Dave Ellis

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Dave Ellis, I appreciate your presenting the opportunity to address what you have said, but for now, I will pass. Thanks.

1 Peter 3:15 - But in your hearts revere Christ as Lord. Always be prepared to give an answer to everyone who asks you to give the reason for the hope that you have. But do this with gentleness and respect.

I have asked you to justify your beliefs. Do you not have answers to the objections I raised, or are you just refusing to address them?

If you don't have answers, fair enough. Hopefully you will look into the objections I raised and find those answers. If you can justify your original statements I look forward to you presenting those justifications later, perhaps I'll learn something. If you find you can not justify those statements, I also assume you will do the honest thing and abandon those particular views.
 
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Dave Ellis

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Fraid so, see my post 431 in response to Devolved's post 423.

Link the article please. I looked for it, and can't find it.

Here is another article however presenting a transcript of a talk by Stephen Hawking, who plainly references things existing or happening before the big bang. Here's an excerpt:

"At this time, the Big Bang, all the matter in the universe, would have been on top of itself. The density would have been infinite. It would have been what is called, a singularity. At a singularity, all the laws of physics would have broken down. This means that the state of the universe, after the Big Bang, will not depend on anything that may have happened before, because the deterministic laws that govern the universe will break down in the Big Bang. The universe will evolve from the Big Bang, completely independently of what it was like before. Even the amount of matter in the universe, can be different to what it was before the Big Bang, as the Law of Conservation of Matter, will break down at the Big Bang.

Since events before the Big Bang have no observational consequences, one may as well cut them out of the theory, and say that time began at the Big Bang. Events before the Big Bang, are simply not defined, because there's no way one could measure what happened at them."

http://www.hawking.org.uk/the-beginning-of-time.html

That does not line up with someone who holds the view that there was absolutely nothing before the big bang. The view he holds (and which is shared by most big bang cosmologists) is that we don't know what existed before, and it likely doesn't matter as the laws that govern the universe came about during the big bang. The universe as we know it started then, and whatever may have been pre-existing we currently have no way to observe.

If I am wrong prove it. The reason I mention it is because that is what the BB theory plainly implies see my post to Devolved.

Here's a website that contains numerous creation myths.

Aztec: http://www.read-legends-and-myths.com/aztec-creation-myth.html

In the beginning there was nothing but a void, nothing existed, in that void the Dual God Ometeotl (also know as Ometecuhtli), Omecihuatl,or the Oldest God), created himself/herself.

Germanic: http://www.read-legends-and-myths.com/germanic-creation-myth.html

The Germanic creation myth says that in the beginning of time, there was nothing but Ginnungagap. Neither sand, sea heaven or earth had been created.

(Ginnungagap means void)

Hindu: http://www.read-legends-and-myths.com/hindu-creation-myth.html

The Hindu creation myth says that before this time began, there was no heaven, no earth and no space between. A vast dark ocean washed upon the shores of nothingness and licked the edges of the night.

(That actually sounds a lot like Genesis 1:1-2.)

Zoroastrian: http://www.read-legends-and-myths.com/zoroastrian-creation-myth.html

The Zoroastrian creation myth says that in the beginning, there was nothing in the world but Ahura Mazda, the Wise Lord, who lived in the Endless Light. And the evil Evil Spirit Ahriman, who lived in the Absolute Darkness. And between these realms was emptiness.

(That is roughly akin to the Jewish creation myth where they believed nothing existed except god, it's just that the Zoroastrians believed there was a good and bad god at the beginning instead of just one god)

I can find more, however four should suffice.

That does not follow. In fact that is logically impossible. That would mean He created Himself which is a logical impossibility.

No, it would not mean that. The big bang theory refers to the beginning of the universe, not the beginning of a god. If god was responsible for the big bang then he was a part of the big bang.

Put another way, germs are part of the germ theory of disease. The theory explains how diseases are caused by germs. That does not mean that germs came into creation the same moment that the disease started. Germs are the cause of the disease, therefore they play a key part of the theory.

If god was the necessary cause of the big bang, he would therefore also be a key part of the theory. He's not though.


Fraid so, see my earlier post in response to you above where I provide the verses.

I addressed that post this morning (you likely have not had a chance to read it yet). Needless to say, your claims do not stand up. I'll let you address it in the other post so we're not arguing the same thing in two different posts.

Because the laws of physics/nature breakdown/disappear at that point, therefore some other non-natural/supernatural force caused it.

Argument from ignorance fallacy. Just because the laws of physics as we know them break down doesn't mean the supernatural is required to explain anything, nor is the supernatural even plausible.

I never said I could PROVE the supernatural but the evidence strongly points in that direction as I demonstrated above.

In order for the evidence to point in the direction you want, you need to provide some sort of actual evidence. Fallacious reasoning and discredited assertions do not equal evidence.

Nevertheless from all the evidence we know about it, it points to the fact that it cannot occur without an interval of time. Therefore a quantum fluctuation could not have caused the BB.

The article I linked above with Stephen Hawking's lecture transcript disagrees with you.

No offense, I believe Stephen Hawking's opinions on the matter over yours.

I did, read the article by Dr. Donald Goldsmith in the Nov. 2007 issue of the Natural History magazine he writes that most cosmologists agree that all matter and energy came into existence at the BB.

Already addressed above

While God cannot be proven with absolute certainty He can be proven as well as you can prove that a chair can hold your weight before sitting on it.

That can be proven with certainty. We have physics that can demonstrate a chair can hold my weight before I sit down on it to test it out.

You can't even prove that you are a real person that I am communicating with on the internet. You could just be a realistic AI.

Sure I can, I could meet you in person and demonstrate my existence, just like anyone else on the internet could.

The only thing that can be proven with certainty is your own existence to yourself.

Tautologies can also be proven with certainty. For example, a 100 pound weight must weigh 100 pounds, and we can be absolutely certain of that. By definition if it does not weigh 100 pounds, then it's not a 100 pound weight.

Apart from that, there is no solution for hard solipsism, that goes for both Atheists and Christians. There's also no reason to believe there's anything to it. If we are living in a virtual reality right now, we have no way to know. However that doesn't help your case, or my case at all either way. It's a meaningless question.

Most all people agree that torturing babies is wrong, so are you saying that in fact torturing babies is not wrong, ie that the majority is wrong concerning that?

I don't believe I've ever presented that argument. I share the belief that torturing babies is wrong.

Not the Christian God, there is an objective source of information about the Christian God, the bible.

The bible is not an objective source. It's the subjective writings of humans.

Most all Christians that agree on the infallible authority of the bible agree on the characteristics of God.

The fact that many Christians believe the bible is infallible doesn't matter. For example, many Muslims believe the Quran is also infallible. I don't imagine that's at all persuasive to you. Both are appeals to popularity, and furthermore we can demonstrate both beliefs are incorrect.

That is supposedly what will happen if the universe is a closed system with no intervention by the creator. But I have demonstrated otherwise see above.

You keep making claims of demonstrating all these things, without actually demonstrating anything. I suggest next time you actually try demonstrating something.

Ok provide an empirically observed example of an impersonal source of purpose. Throughout all of human experience only persons can create purpose.

That's my point, only people can create purpose.

Your error is that your ascribing intentional purpose to things simply because they happen to function a particular way. Just because something does something doesn't mean it was intentionally designed to do that thing.[/QUOTE]
 
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anonymous person

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1 Peter 3:15 - But in your hearts revere Christ as Lord. Always be prepared to give an answer to everyone who asks you to give the reason for the hope that you have. But do this with gentleness and respect.

I have asked you to justify your beliefs. Do you not have answers to the objections I raised, or are you just refusing to address them?

If you don't have answers, fair enough. Hopefully you will look into the objections I raised and find those answers. If you can justify your original statements I look forward to you presenting those justifications later, perhaps I'll learn something. If you find you can not justify those statements, I also assume you will do the honest thing and abandon those particular views.

I'm refusing to address them. Thanks for the offer though.
 
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Dave Ellis

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I'm refusing to address them. Thanks for the offer though.

Just out of curiosity, why do you refuse to answer things that the bible commands you to answer? That makes very little sense to me.

If I were someone who took the bible seriously, I'd make every attempt possible to follow it to the letter. I assume you are someone who takes the bible seriously, so why are you disregarding what it says in this instance? I don't get that.
 
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anonymous person

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Just out of curiosity, why do you refuse to answer things that the bible commands you to answer? That makes very little sense to me.

If I were someone who took the bible seriously, I'd make every attempt possible to follow it to the letter. I assume you are someone who takes the bible seriously, so why are you disregarding what it says in this instance? I don't get that.

It says be ready, which I am. But being ready to give an answer to the one who asks me why I have the hope I do is not analogous to answering every question anyone may ask me.

Jesus did not answer everyone who asked Him a question, but I assure you He was ready to do so.
 
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Dave Ellis

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It says be ready, which I am. But being ready to give an answer to the one who asks me why I have the hope I do is not analogous to answering every question anyone may ask me.

Jesus did not answer everyone who asked Him a question, but I assure you He was ready to do so.


i-do-not-think-it-means-what-you-think-it-means.jpg
 
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bhsmte

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Just out of curiosity, why do you refuse to answer things that the bible commands you to answer? That makes very little sense to me.

If I were someone who took the bible seriously, I'd make every attempt possible to follow it to the letter. I assume you are someone who takes the bible seriously, so why are you disregarding what it says in this instance? I don't get that.

Straight forward questions, are like kryptonite to fundies.
 
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