Can anyone read the original Greek New Testament?
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branchofthevine
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The word for graces in Ephesians: χαριστος which does not appear in Luke 1:28, though the word χαιρε appears in the Luke passage. Similar, but not the same.
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Thanks..is it that the Ephesians quote is that Christ graced us and the Luke quote is perfect passive, meaning Mary already had grace?
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St_Barnabus
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Are you still questioning about Mary? Why are you going to a non-denom. group for understanding, if you want Catholic teaching? Something is amiss here. Are you really Catholic?
Yes, Mary already had grace, as has been the teaching of the RCC, and she was "full of grace" from the moment of her conception. Do you doubt this?
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branchofthevine
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no, it is a different meaning. Even though the words probably share a similar root, in Ephesians the meaning is "grace, favor, or goodwill" but in Luke, the meaning is more of "rejoice, be glad". I'm not sure if the word in Luke is a Perfect passive, my first reaction is that it was a vocative -> Rejoice! But it might not be the right declension.
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branchofthevine
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I was going to edit my post, but I don't think that would make a notification. I've been thinking about Luke 1:28 since you asked about it, and I realized that the vocative form doesn't add up because χαιρε isn't a noun. So I got to thinking, and it is actually a present active indicative verb, which still translates to "rejoice!" but I would be bugged by the fact that I had it wrong before.
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