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Can anyone explain the different views of the Eucharist?

Crandaddy

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Gxg (G²);62822707 said:
Do you feel that what my friend said on the issue was responded to properly? Or do you feel that she was off in what she said and perhaps needed to consider what was said in response?

Personally, I felt that what my friend was saying was gravely misunderstood - and IMHO, it felt that she was being attacked due to what she was saying because those opposed to it came from the understandings developed in the Protestant Reformation - a camp I agree with on certain things and yet simultaneously feel got A LOT wrong when it came to much of it divorcing itself from the mystical dynamic that Ancient Christianity was very much supportive of.....and some of the responses I did think were a bit poor in regards to what my sister in Christ said. It smacked of the ideology that just because someone believed in/supported that which was Catholic automatically meant that they were off ...and somehow, the goal was the Reformation/going from there.

It was not responded to properly. The responses are pretty much a bunch of knee-jerk reactionary Catholic-bashing. I believe she is quite right to take note of the Scriptural support for the Communion bread and wine actually becoming Christ's Body and Blood, because I'm quite convinced that this is orthodox Christian doctrine.

Seems to me her interlocutors need to take another good, hard look at those Scripture references she provided...
 
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Crandaddy

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Except that the position of the priests as In Persona Christi is not held by the Anglican Communion. The grace to be able to commune comes from God through the gathered community looking to what has been, what is to come and as Christ incarnate in the gathered community. This is why an Anglican Priest has to be in a gathered community to celebrate the Eucharist where a RC Priest does not.

I cannot find my uni notes on this but on Wiki there is a good summary of the position. It references the book that my notes does so I am inclined to believe it.

Anglican sacraments - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Well, I hate to break it to ya, but my church is UECNA, which is one of the Continuing churches (i.e. not in the Communion).

Anyway, my understanding is that we hold that when the priest says the Words of Institution, he does so in persona Christi, and that this is necessary (though perhaps not sufficient by itself) to effect the change from ordinary bread and wine into the Body and Blood of Christ.
 
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Rurik

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Well, I hate to break it to ya, but my church is UECNA, which is one of the Continuing churches (i.e. not in the Communion).

Well may be you should be careful on how you represent yourself and your opinions then. I readily accept you & your Church as part of the wider Anglican Family but you need to be careful when you are posting something that may be in disagreement with mainline teachings and how you represent them.

Anyway, my understanding is that we hold that when the priest says the Words of Institution, he does so in persona Christi, and that this is necessary (though perhaps not sufficient by itself) to effect the change from ordinary bread and wine into the Body and Blood of Christ.

There are certainly a number of Anglicans who would hold this position as well but I do not think that it represents a majority view or even a correct one. I certainly cannot read out of they prayer books a theology of in Persona Christi.
 
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Albion

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Well may be you should be careful on how you represent yourself and your opinions then. I readily accept you & your Church as part of the wider Anglican Family but you need to be careful when you are posting something that may be in disagreement with mainline teachings and how you represent them.

There's nothing about the UECNA that isn't historically Anglican. And our friend has previously mentioned which Anglican church he belongs to, so I don't see anything here that would justify a complaint.

There are certainly a number of Anglicans who would hold this position as well but I do not think that it represents a majority view or even a correct one. I certainly cannot read out of they prayer books a theology of in Persona Christi.

I agree with you there, and I think most UECNA members would also, but it's hardly rare among today's Anglicans of whatever affiliation.
 
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Sean611

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MKJ

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God is a Father to his Son, literally. Human fathers are fathers to their sons, relatively.

No.

You cannot confine God to human language or ideas in that way, and you cannot know God in himself in any case, only in his relation to us and the created world.

You might have notice though, that I did say elsewhere that there is a sense in which we could say human fatherhood derives its reality from that quality as it exists in God.
 
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MKJ

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I also would not say that the idea that the priest operates in persona christi is really outside what might be called Anglican.

I also would say, if you want the view of the majority of Anglican laity, and a good number of the priests in the West, they see the Eucharist as just a representation.
 
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Cappadocious

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No.

You cannot confine God to human language or ideas in that way
God condescended to become human and preach the Gospel in human words. Even though words are limited, that doesn't mean they are useless.

and you cannot know God in himself in any case, only in his relation to us and the created world.
You can not know *anything* in itself in such a way as to have otherness destroyed. I am encountering you through your ecstatic presence right now. And this forum, and this room I'm in. And you can know God through his uncreated ecstatic presence which is really him
 
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MKJ

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God condescended to become human and preach the Gospel in human words. Even though words are limited, that doesn't mean they are useless.

You can not know *anything* in itself in such a way as to have otherness destroyed. I am encountering you through your ecstatic presence right now. And this forum, and this room I'm in. And you can know God through his uncreated ecstatic presence which is really him

Who said language was useless - I didn't.

The discussion was whether the use of the term literally was appropriate. Specifically in reference to talking about whether the sacrifice of the Eucharist was literally the same as the OT sacrifices.

Knowing God has limitations that are different than with other created things. Though I do not remember saying anything at all in this discussion about how we know created things.

I am not sure why you think I am saying anything controversial here -I might expect that from an Anglican but not from the Orthodox.

I am not sure what you are really wanting to argue about here, as I brought this up in response to a rather 19th century way of thinking about what is true and what is symbol and how we can define Gods actions.

If you would like a more in depth discussion about how we know God, another thread might be a better place to focus on that.
 
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Gxg (G²)

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It was not responded to properly. The responses are pretty much a bunch of knee-jerk reactionary Catholic-bashing. I believe she is quite right to take note of the Scriptural support for the Communion bread and wine actually becoming Christ's Body and Blood, because I'm quite convinced that this is orthodox Christian doctrine.

Seems to me her interlocutors need to take another good, hard look at those Scripture references she provided...
Thank you for sharing as you did - as I thought the responses seemed a good bit off and out of line with Church history. When I actually started to respond further on the ways that Byzantine and Coptic culture are often ignored in the debate, the individual mocking her started to do the same to me - and ignored dealing with Patristics in seeing what the Church Fathers actually said.


It was ironic to see their claims - as Reformers - when actually considering what those in the Reformed heritage actually noted. Martin Luther admitted the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist. ..although he taught that the glorified Body of Christ is present in the Eucharist along with the bread and wine - something many others did not like even though the idea of partaking of the BODY/Blood of Christ in fullness was something that was already taught in the early body of believers repeatedly. Of course, although both acknowledge the dogma of the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist, Luther rejected the doctrine concerning the conversion of the earthly gifts (bread and wine) as a philosophical explanation, which has nothing to do with revelation. At the end of the year 1519, Luther still maintained the doctrine of transubstantiation intact. In his Ein Sermon von dem hocwurdigen Sakrament des heiligen wahren Leichnams Christi und von den Bruderschaften, he taught that there is a change of the substance of the bread and wine but emphasizes that it is symbolical of our union with the spiritual body of Christ. ..and this change must be interpreted not only sacramentally but spiritually and is aimed at the change of the natural man by a common life with Christ. Later on, Luther had some changes in thought - and when Luther saw in Zwingli a further threat to the true doctrine of the real presence, he replied in a number of sermons issued under the title Sermon von dem Sakrament des Leibes und Blutes Christi, wider die Schwarmgeister (1526).

It was important to some of the Reformers to maintain understanding how the Lord can be at all places at once is one of the things the early body of believers understood when it came to the Eucharist/COMMUNION and partaking of the Body of Christ - as they knew that it wasn't an issue for believers around the world, in all times and places/eras (from the 1st century to the 17th century to the 21st century) to partake of the ONE Sacrifice that Christ made in light of the fact that the Lord is not bound nor limited by time itself...a temporary construct.

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One of the most beautiful ways in which we commune with the whole Christ is in the Lord’s Supper (1 Cor. 11:17–34). And even for others arguing that Jesus has a human body with all its limitations and therefore his body does not become omnipresent and distributed around the world in the elements, there are still ways of seeing the reality of how we all partake of His body nonetheless whenever we have Communion.

As it is, for the standard argumentation that Christ cannot be present around the world due to how others see his limitations while on Earth, the reality of the matter is that GOD is GOD - and He HAs no limits, nor does Jesus in the present. Christ is not limited to being in Heaven in ONE place only since He has regained all the abilities He had BEFORE He rose from the Grave. ..rising with ALL Power ( Romans 1:4, Matthew 28:18, Ephesians 2:6, Colossians 1-2, etc. )

As Jesus Christ rose from the dead, where is He? Scripture tells us precisely where He is: He is seated at the right hand of God (Hebrews 10:12). It also informs us exactly what He is doing: when we pray, He intercedes with the Father on our behalf (Hebrews 7:25/iRomans 8:28) - EVERY SINGLE human soul on the planet and who was in existence
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- and we see this, for brief example, in the myriad of ways the Lord has appeared to many in the Muslim world via dreams...thousands coming to Christ every year when the Lord appears to His people in places where the Gospel has been denied. It's not as if the Lord in His resurrected Body needs to somehow take a break/catch his breath
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For His abilities are without limit . Moreover, we know from John 14 that Jesus is preparing a place for you and me in heaven and that one day we will be with Him there (verses 2-3). In the meantime, He is arranging all the events necessary for His return.

The Spirit of Christ was no more physically confined to His human body during the incarnation than He is now. Remember that at His ascension He rose bodily and is seated at the right hand of God the Father. From thence He shall come—bodily—to judge the quick and the dead. In other words, He has not abandoned His humanity, even now that He is glorified. And yet He is present wherever two or three are gathered together in His Name (Matthew 18:20). He is "with [us] always, to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:20). And He has promised never to leave us or forsake us (Hebrews 13:5). Scripture expressly affirms that Christ is omnipresent...for when He assumed a human nature He did not have to give up that (or any other) aspect of His divine nature. The reality is that the incarnation was a miracle of addition, not subtraction...as Jesus took on humanity but He did not divest himself of deity.

As Peter Lewis noted best:


We must be very careful here not to imagine, as some have done, that at the incarnation our Lord "left behind" something of his Godhead or its attributes. God exists in the perfection of his attributes. Take away any of his perfections and you no longer have God. You cannot have reduced Godhead. There is God and there is not-God: but there is nothing in-between! . . . In respect of his divine nature our Lord continued even during his incarnate life to fill the heavens and the earth with his power and presence. [The Glory of Christ, 233.]



IMHO, Understanding how the Lord can be at all places at once is one of the things the early body of believers understood when it came to the Eucharist/COMMUNION and partaking of the Body of Christ - as they knew that it wasn't an issue for believers around the world, in all times and places/eras (from the 1st century to the 17th century to the 21st century) to partake of the ONE Sacrifice that Christ made in light of the fact that the Lord is not bound nor limited by time itself...a temporary construct. One of the most beautiful ways in which we commune with the whole Christ is in the Lord’s Supper (1 Cor. 11:17–34). And even for others arguign that Jesus has a human body with all its limitations and therefore his body does not become omnipresent and distributed around the world in the elements, there are still ways of seeing the reality of how we all partake of His body nonetheless whenever we have Communioon.


As John Calvin explained:


[Although] the Word in his immeasurable essence united with the nature of man into one person, we do not imagine that he was confined therein. Here is something marvelous: the Son of God descended from heaven in such a way that, without leaving heaven, he willed to be home in the virgin's womb, to go about the earth, and to hang upon the cross; yet he continuously filled the world even as he had done from the beginning! [Institutes, 2:13:4.]

As Calvin noted in his view we are raised to heaven, where we feed on the whole Christ in His humanity and in His deity. And therefore, we should not neglect the sacrament and the grace it offers.


For THE sacrament of the Lord's supper is a testimony of CHRIST power over the grave. As Paul originally didn't write with Chapter/verse (as that was added later), his writings were originally one flowing document that connected one thought to the next - and it's easy to take what He said in I Corinthians 11 and divorce it from what he noted later on when pointing out the centrality of Christ in the final chapters of I Corinthians. I Corinthians, Chapter 15 is devoted to the Apostle Paul's persuasive argument in favor of Jesus' triumph over death: "Now if Christ be preached that He rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead? But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen: And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain: and your faith is also vain" (I Corinthians 15:12-14). In addition to this passage, verses 19 through 21 of the same chapter bring more clarification: "If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable. But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept. For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead."

But after the first generations of Reformers passed on, the later generation rose up - and the later generation did not view Eucharist favorably - and from there came evolution of what we see in the MAJORITY of the Protestant world today when it comes to thinking of Eucharist as a negative/disconnected from the Bible. More of this was discussed elsewhere (here, here, here and here).

Seems to me her interlocutors need to take another good, hard look at those Scripture references she provided

These are some of the other things that've been shared with the individual:
The early church settled this issue at the first council, Acts 15. No blood drinking...there is no way, not even considered as a thought that they taught they were drinking the "real literal blood" of Jesus, since they are clear, stay away from blood and the apostles do not offer any discussion on the "blood of Jesus" permitted at communion. Only a few of the OT laws restated clearly and it is in reference to blood. Why? Because the apostles taught, to drink the "fruit of the vine" as Jesus called it, in "remembrance" of Him, there is no way they believed anyone was blood drinking........Again, Scripture makes it very clear, there were no blood drinking ceremonies in the early church.....Acts 15: 22 Then it seemed good to the apostles and the elders, with the whole church, to choose men from among them to send to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas—Judas called Barsabbas, and Silas, leading men among the brethren, 23 and they sent this letter by them,
How would you address some of the arguments? I was curious, as I have already responded recently - but I was wondering what your approach would be.
 
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Gxg (G²)

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Crandaddy

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Gxg (G²);62829370 said:
Thank you for sharing as you did

Oh, it's my pleasure, G². :) In fact, I went through every quote you originally posted and responded point-by-point. If you're interested, shoot me a PM.

The early church settled this issue at the first council, Acts 15. No blood drinking...there is no way, not even considered as a thought that they taught they were drinking the "real literal blood" of Jesus, since they are clear, stay away from blood and the apostles do not offer any discussion on the "blood of Jesus" permitted at communion. Only a few of the OT laws restated clearly and it is in reference to blood. Why? Because the apostles taught, to drink the "fruit of the vine" as Jesus called it, in "remembrance" of Him, there is no way they believed anyone was blood drinking........Again, Scripture makes it very clear, there were no blood drinking ceremonies in the early church.....Acts 15: 22 Then it seemed good to the apostles and the elders, with the whole church, to choose men from among them to send to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas—Judas called Barsabbas, and Silas, leading men among the brethren, 23 and they sent this letter by them,
Three points:

(1) Blood was considered to be the seat of life: “Only be sure that thou eat not the blood: for the blood is the life; and thou mayest not eat the life with the flesh.” (Deut. 12:23)

It is because of this association of blood with life that the Gentiles were forbidden to consume the blood of animals, and they were to do this in deference to the Blood of Christ that they would consume in the Eucharist. In other words, they were not to take on the life of the beasts that they ate as common food, but they were to take on the life of Christ in the spiritual drink of His Blood in Holy Communion.

(2) Regarding the "fruit of the vine" reference, Jesus is not referring to the cup of His Blood. During the Passover Seder, four cups of wine are used. Our Lord consecrated the third cup, the Cup of Redemption, as His Blood. It was after they had drunk the third cup that Jesus made this statement in the context of the fourth Passover cup. He drank of the fourth cup at His crucifixion, but that cup contained vinegar, not wine. (It's also interesting to note that the vinegar was given to Him on a hyssop branch, which is what was used to smear lamb's blood on the Israelites' doorposts before the original Passover.)

For more info on this, see here.

(3) As for our Lord's command to "do this in remembrance of me," yes, there is a memorial aspect to the Eucharist, but this doesn't mean it's nothing but a disconnected memorial.
 
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rhartsc

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He is the scriptural presbyter. We call him "priest" as a colloquialism.



Again, slang. The Prayerbook uses a more appropriate term, "Holy Table."



That was the Old Testament church. Christ's church is different. You yourself referred to a foreshadowing.



Yes, Christ is our high priest.



Who said anything about window dressing or mere remembrance? No one who has contributed to this thread. At least not so far as I remember. (Actually, you are confusing two different matters at this point--the Lord's Supper as (possible) sacrifice and the Real Presence of Christ in the sacrament.)

Thanks for your response Albion. I will have to think about it for a while. I guess my confusion comes from the previous church affiliations where there presbyters are priests. I am not sure if I can unlearn what I have been taught since I was a child but I will try to stay open minded.
 
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The Dark Knight

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Albion

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Thanks for your response Albion. I will have to think about it for a while. I guess my confusion comes from the previous church affiliations where there presbyters are priests. I am not sure if I can unlearn what I have been taught since I was a child but I will try to stay open minded.

Rhart, I guess I don't follow what you're telling me there. If you want to elaborate for my benefit, please do.
Presbyters are priests? I don't know how to interpret that. The two terms do refer to the same order, although it's not the case that the NT elder was supposed to be just the new version of the OT Levitical priest.
 
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rhartsc

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Rhart, I guess I don't follow what you're telling me there. If you want to elaborate for my benefit, please do.
Presbyters are priests? I don't know how to interpret that. The two terms do refer to the same order, although it's not the case that the NT elder was supposed to be just the new version of the OT Levitical priest.

In the RCC and the EOC (according to my understanding as a lay person with no formal theological training) they believe that their priests actually perform a priestly function...that is why they talk about the sacrifice of the mass. If i Understood what you were saying about the contrast with Anglicanism is that the AC does not believe that the Anglican priest/presbyter actually performs a sacrifice or that particular role of a priest. And that their really is no altar in that there is no sacrifice made upon it. Or did I misunderstand what you were saying?
 
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Rurik

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In the RCC and the EOC (according to my understanding as a lay person with no formal theological training) they believe that their priests actually perform a priestly function...that is why they talk about the sacrifice of the mass. If i Understood what you were saying about the contrast with Anglicanism is that the AC does not believe that the Anglican priest/presbyter actually performs a sacrifice or that particular role of a priest. And that their really is no altar in that there is no sacrifice made upon it. Or did I misunderstand what you were saying?


This is my understanding of the situation.
 
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The Dark Knight

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In the RCC and the EOC (according to my understanding as a lay person with no formal theological training) they believe that their priests actually perform a priestly function...that is why they talk about the sacrifice of the mass. If i Understood what you were saying about the contrast with Anglicanism is that the AC does not believe that the Anglican priest/presbyter actually performs a sacrifice or that particular role of a priest. And that their really is no altar in that there is no sacrifice made upon it. Or did I misunderstand what you were saying?
A lot of us absolutely believe that our priest is making Christ's sacrifice present on the altar, in a similar manner (or the same) to what those Churches believe.
 
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Albion

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In the RCC and the EOC (according to my understanding as a lay person with no formal theological training) they believe that their priests actually perform a priestly function...that is why they talk about the sacrifice of the mass.

Ah, yes. I guess I didn't remember which churches you'd said were in your background. They do indeed take that view and Anglicans do not.

(To be more precise, MOST Anglicans do not--and such ideas are not to be found in any of the Anglican documents. This kind of sacrificing priesthood is condemned by the Thirty-Nine Articles of Religion. As with everything else, though, the minute anyone states what the more or less official Anglican position is, some other Anglican is going to say, "Well, I believe differently!" ;))

If I understood what you were saying about the contrast with Anglicanism is that the AC does not believe that the Anglican priest/presbyter actually performs a sacrifice or that particular role of a priest.
That's right. Take a look at Article XXXI in the Articles of Religion that are in your prayerbook.

And that their really is no altar in that there is no sacrifice made upon it. Or did I misunderstand what you were saying?
No, you understood. We all tend to call it an altar, but it's not an altar in the sense that the old Hebrew altar was a structure on which animals were slain by a priest in order to placate God.
 
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