Can Amil prove with Scripture that the beast is in the pit during the thousand years?

[DavidPT]

Let's look at some scriptures that reveal WHO binds Satan, HOW it is that he is bound, WHEN He was bound, and WHAT/WHO he was bound from.
First, the parable of the strongman.
The single truth to learned is that it is Jesus who first binds Satan, and then once bound, Jesus as the Victor, is entitled to the spoils of satan's goods.
Matthew 12[28] But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you.
[29] Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

First let's assume this is so, but what always come to mind though, what does all this mean when satan is no longer bound, when he is loosed instead? How do you apply that same victory in that same manner when satan is no longer bound? How does Jesus first bind satan when satan is no longer bound, so that Jesus the Victor, is still entitled to the spoils of satan's goods? Is Jesus only a temporary Victor? Is that what we should conclude since one can't apply any of this to both the binding and loosing of satan?

 

[Spiritual Jew]

First let's assume this is so, but what always come to mind though, what does all this mean when satan is no longer bound, when he is loosed instead? How do you apply that same victory in that same manner when satan is no longer bound? How does Jesus first bind satan when satan is no longer bound, so that Jesus the Victor, is still entitled to the spoils of satan's goods? Is Jesus only a temporary Victor? Is that what we should conclude since one can't apply any of this to both the binding and loosing of satan?

I don't understand what you're trying to say here. Christ's victory over Satan was already fully won at the cross. You understand that, don't you? Satan being allowed a little season to wreak havoc unrestrained doesn't change that. He will be cast into the lake of fire shortly after that and that is set in stone. So, this idea of Jesus being only a temporary Victor is ridiculous. How could you even ask such a question? No one believes that His victory is temporary.

What do you think the strong man's goods represent? The strong man represents Satan who the Pharisees called Beelzebub. This should be obvious. The strong man's goods represent the people who Satan had control over and was able to keep in slavery to the fear of death (Hebrews 2:14-15). By binding the strong man and spoiling his goods figuratively represents Jesus binding/restraining Satan so that those who once were slaves to the fear of death that Satan had power over could be lead from the kingdom of Satan over to the kingdom of God.

The following passage illustrates what the binding of Satan is all about:

Acts 26:16 But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a witness both of these things which thou hast seen, and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee; 17 Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee, 18 To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.

What Premils like yourself never seem to understand is the tremendous impact that the preaching of the gospel has had on the world over the years. In Ephesians 2:11-13 Paul wrote about how the Gentiles, before Christ came, had "no hope" and were "without God in the world". In Old Testament times, very few Gentiles were saved. But in New Testament times there have been many millions, at least, that have been saved.

How and why did this happen? Did nothing change in relation to Satan in order for it to happen? Of course not. Something major changed in relation to Satan at that point. It happened because Satan was bound by Christ and the preaching of His gospel so that the Gentiles could be turned "from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God". The strong man (Satan) needed his goods (people who were in spiritual darkness) to be spoiled so that his house (Satan's kingdom) could then be spoiled by way of bringing people over "from the power of Satan unto God".

If only you could understand the huge impact that Christ's death, resurrection and the preaching of the gospel has had on Satan then maybe you would understand what his binding is really all about.

 

[sovereigngrace]

First let's assume this is so, but what always come to mind though, what does all this mean when satan is no longer bound, when he is loosed instead? How do you apply that same victory in that same manner when satan is no longer bound? How does Jesus first bind satan when satan is no longer bound, so that Jesus the Victor, is still entitled to the spoils of satan's goods? Is Jesus only a temporary Victor? Is that what we should conclude since one can't apply any of this to both the binding and loosing of satan?

The liberation of the Gentile nations through the preaching of the Gospel will be curtailed at the end when Satan is released and the restraint is taken off the mystery of iniquity. This does not in any way take away from the victory that Christ wrought 2000 years ago. To think otherwise is absurd. Again, you are doing your best to misrepresent the Amil position because you have nothing to hit it with.

 

[DavidPT]

I don't understand what you're trying to say here. Christ's victory over Satan was already fully won at the cross. You understand that, don't you? Satan being allowed a little season to wreak havoc unrestrained doesn't change that. He will be cast into the lake of fire shortly after that and that is set in stone. So, this idea of Jesus being only a temporary Victor is ridiculous. How could you even ask such a question? No one believes that His victory is temporary.

You used to be Premil, yet I have no clue as to how you reasoned things at the time since I never knew you when you were Premil. But I'm assuming you have a good idea as to how Premils typically reason things in general. For example. Amils insist satan is bound. Premils then compare that with other Scripture, such as satan walking about seeking whom he might devour, thus the Premil then reasoning that Amils must be wrong and that this passage, for one, proves it.

And since I'm still Premil, still reasoning these things like a Premil might, in my mind, assuming Matthew 12 can be applied to Revelation 20:3, but that it obviously can't be applied to Revelation 20:7-9 as well since Matthew 12 involves binding the strongman and that Revelation 20:7-9 doesn't, and assuming satan is meant by the strongman, this seems to imply that Jesus is only victorious over satan for a thousand years, in regards to why satan needed to be bound to begin with. Yet, Amils claim that the cross bound satan. Why doesn't the cross continue to bind him until he is cast into the LOF? So, when I mentioned temporary Victor, I was only meaning it in this regard, having to do with his binding.

 

[Spiritual Jew]

You used to be Premil, yet I have no clue as to how you reasoned things at the time since I never knew you when you were Premil.

My whole reasoning at that time was based on the assumption that what was described in Revelation 20 followed what was described in Revelation 19 chronologically. That's it. It wasn't based on Zechariah 14 or anything like that.

Honestly, I was confused by Revelation 20 back then. I couldn't make sense of why there would be a thousand year time period after His second coming followed by a little season for Satan. Especially, since I believed Satan was already going to be given a little season before the return of Christ as well. I wondered why God would allow history to basically repeat itself, but I didn't really question it until I joined Bible Forums and saw people like sovereigngrace (wpm) talking about Amil there. I found their arguments to be quite convincing in a short amount of time, so I changed my view. I was always post-trib and had already believed that Christ would destroy all His enemies when He returned, but I just didn't put two and two together back then as to what that would mean in relation to Revelation 20.

But I'm assuming you have a good idea as to how Premils typically reason things in general.

After debating them for so many years, yes, I believe I do.

For example. Amils insist satan is bound. Premils then compare that with other Scripture, such as satan walking about seeking whom he might devour, thus the Premil then reasoning that Amils must be wrong and that this passage, for one, proves it.

And, of course, I believe that is based on a misunderstanding of what the purpose of his binding is.

And since I'm still Premil, still reasoning these things like a Premil might, in my mind, assuming Matthew 12 can be applied to Revelation 20:3, but that it obviously can't be applied to Revelation 20:7-9 as well since Matthew 12 involves binding the strongman and that Revelation 20:7-9 doesn't, and assuming satan is meant by the strongman, this seems to imply that Jesus is only victorious over satan for a thousand years, in regards to why satan needed to be bound to begin with.

I don't think it implies that at all. That would only be the case if Satan's final eternal destiny was not yet determined. But, it is. So, there's nothing temporary about His defeat. Do you think that Jesus is only victorious over Satan for a thousand years and no longer victorious over Satan during his little season? I'm sure you don't. So, why would you think Amils would believe that? We don't.

Yet, Amils claim that the cross bound satan. Why doesn't the cross continue to bind him until he is cast into the LOF?

Because God decided to allow Satan to have a short amount of time before the end to do his thing unrestrained.

I addressed all of this already in my post #62. Do you have any thoughts on anything I said in that post? You didn't really specifically address anything I said. Can you please do that instead of just basically repeating things that you've already said?

So, when I mentioned temporary Victor, I was only meaning it in this regard, having to do with his binding.

There's nothing temporary about Christ's victory over Satan. Satan's defeat is set in stone. He was fully, permanently defeated at the cross. You agree with that, don't you? So, how can you think Christ's victory could be temporary or that anyone else here would believe that? Satan's little season is just a speed bump on the path to the consummation (Satan being cast into the lake of fire) of the victory that Jesus already won on the cross.

 

[Earburner]

First let's assume this is so, but what always come to mind though, what does all this mean when satan is no longer bound, when he is loosed instead? How do you apply that same victory in that same manner when satan is no longer bound? How does Jesus first bind satan when satan is no longer bound, so that Jesus the Victor, is still entitled to the spoils of satan's goods? Is Jesus only a temporary Victor? Is that what we should conclude since one can't apply any of this to both the binding and loosing of satan?

For the simple answer to your questions, we need to look at Luke 11:23-26
[23] He that is not with me is against me: and he that gathereth not with me scattereth.
[24] When the unclean spirit is gone out of a man, he walketh through dry places, seeking rest; and finding none, he saith, I will return unto my house whence I came out.
[25] And when he cometh, he findeth it swept and garnished.
[26] Then goeth he, and taketh to him seven other spirits more wicked than himself; and they enter in, and dwell there: and the last state of that man is worse than the first. (See also Matthew 12:42-45)

In verse 23, are you with Jesus-(Jesus in you- by His Holy Spirit dwelling in you- Revelation 3:20)?
If so, then you are in a covenant relationship with Him, having a deep desire to gather with Him, those who are lost.

24. Each and every person who comes to God, by repentance, through faith in Christ, has their sins forgiven and removed for them, by the shed Blood of Christ. Such a person is "swept and garnished", and is made to be holy and ready to receive the free Gift of the Holy Spirit of God, who shall take up permanent residence within the believer.

However, there is one important issue on our part that we MUST DO. We must ASK for His Living Holy Spirit to come into our very being. Luke 11:13, Revelation 3:20.

If we do not follow through in our commitment, then we are not spiritually confirmed in our faith, nor are we "sealed unto the day of redemption".
25-26. The fallen angels will know that they still have free/easy access to their EMPTY house, because they see and know that the permanency of God's Holy Spirit IS NOT residing within such a person, no matter how much they believe in Jesus.

So then, that is HOW Satan is "bound".
By the Holy Spirit's Living presence within us,
satan and the demonic horde can never re-enter our bodies again.
Why? God the Father and God the Son now dwell within us....forever, for all who ask in faith believing.

Luke 11[9] And I say unto you, Ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you.
[10] For every one that asketh receiveth; and he that seeketh findeth; and to him that knocketh it shall be opened.
[11] If a son shall ask bread of any of you that is a father, will he give him a stone? or if he ask a fish, will he for a fish give him a serpent?
[12] Or if he shall ask an egg, will he offer him a scorpion?
[13] If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?

 

[Earburner]

^ Satan is bound from entering Born Again believers, the invisible church.
However, he has easy access to those who have ONLY a profession of faith.
THESE ARE the "tares", that will be complaining to God, about all the many good works that they have done FOR Him. Unfortunately for them, they never committed THEMSELVES to God, so that He could work His own works through them. They truly will be "none of His", on the Day of His Glorious return, in flaming fire. Romans 8:9.
Now you know what He means: "Many are called, but few chosen".

 

[grafted branch]

For the simple answer to your questions, we need to look at Luke 11:23-26
[23] He that is not with me is against me: and he that gathereth not with me scattereth.
[24] When the unclean spirit is gone out of a man, he walketh through dry places, seeking rest; and finding none, he saith, I will return unto my house whence I came out.
[25] And when he cometh, he findeth it swept and garnished.
[26] Then goeth he, and taketh to him seven other spirits more wicked than himself; and they enter in, and dwell there: and the last state of that man is worse than the first. (See also Matthew 12:42-45)

In verse 23, are you with Jesus-(Jesus in you- by His Holy Spirit dwelling in you- Revelation 3:20)?
If so, then you are in a covenant relationship with Him, having a deep desire to gather with Him, those who are lost.

24. Each and every person who comes to God, by repentance, through faith in Christ, has their sins forgiven and removed for them, by the shed Blood of Christ. Such a person is "swept and garnished", and is made to be holy and ready to receive the free Gift of the Holy Spirit of God, who shall take up permanent residence within the believer.

However, there is one important issue on our part that we MUST DO. We must ASK for His Living Holy Spirit to come into our very being. Luke 11:13, Revelation 3:20.

The Matthew 12:42-45 rendering has the phrase “even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation” in verse 45. To me this phrase seems to suggest that this happens to two groups of people, one of them being this generation.

What is your view on how this phrase works in conjunction with Satan being bound?

 

[Earburner]

It would be great if you would answer these questions.

Yes, I can answer the questions I posed.
So then, the first concept to be learned is, WHO was it that obtained the Victory over Satan?
Ans. Jesus

The second concept is, HOW was the victory over satan and his goods achieved?
Ans. Through Jesus' death, resurrection, Ascension, and by making available to all people, the Free Gift of God's Holy Spirit.
By our coming to God, through faith in Jesus, and asking for the gift of His Holy Spirt, through faith, we are made to be New creatures in Christ Jesus.

The third concept is, WHAT are the goods that are the spoils of the battle? (Since Jesus is the Victor, then those spoils/goods, which satan held captive, are now subject to the Victor, who is Jesus).
Ans. Through faith in Jesus, and our receiving God's Holy Spirit, are we NOW a child of God.
Where once we were one of satan's "goods", we now have been bought back to God, through the precious blood of Jesus. We have been spiritually translated into the KoG.
The blood of Christ was shed for the forgiveness of our sins. Therefore, for everyone who comes to God for forgiveness through faith in Christ, and ASKS for His gift of the Holy Spirit, they are permanently "sealed unto the Day of redemption", and Satan is "bound" from ever re-entering into us again.

The fourth concept to be learned is, WHEN did Jesus bind Satan, so that Jesus could spoil satan's goods?
Ans. In the day of Christ's sacrificial work for us on His cross, we have entered into the symbolic 1000 years of God's Grace. Everytime a person repents to God through Jesus, and ASKS for the Gift of God's Holy Spirit, Satan is permanently bound from re-entering God's Born Again Saint again.
This individual "binding" of satan shall continue in the present Age of God's Grace. But, when God closes the door on His Age of Grace, the "mystery of iniquity" will come into full swing, with nothing to hold it back.
2Thes.2[7] For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
The sure sign, that the Day of Christ's Glorious appearance from Heaven will be at hand, is when the "MoB" is manifested. There will then be a falling away [from faith], of which indeed shall separate the goats from the sheep.

 

[Earburner]

The Matthew 12:42-45 rendering has the phrase “even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation” in verse 45. To me this phrase seems to suggest that this happens to two groups of people, one of them being this generation.

What is your view on how this phrase works in conjunction with Satan being bound?

Isn't every generation wicked? As satan's "goods", don't they all need to be spiritually delivered/translated into the KoG, whereby the Holy Spirit within them keeps satan at bay from re-entering them again?
In this particular case, Jesus was talking about the Jews as a generation of people.

 

[Earburner]

When Stephen was martyred, according to John, the beast would have been in the pit at the time, thus inactive. Even according to Amil since Amil has satan in the pit at the time of the cross or at least as of the ascension, Amil also has the beast in the pit when satan is in it, therefore the beast would have been inactive when Stephen was martyred if it was in the pit at the time. Keeping in mind, my reasoning not necessarily yours. I'm not saying Amils might see it that way, I'm saying I see it that way if assuming this scenario. I don't misrepresent Amil like some of you claim. Most of the time it's like what I just said, in general I'm not saying Amils might see it that way, I'm saying I see it that way if assuming this scenario, whatever the scenario might be at the time. How could that be misrepresenting Amil?

In the above, you are responding to "SG's" 5th point, of which from my review SG is correct.

I interject by proposing that the PM view has concluded falsely in the book of Daniel about the 70 weeks of KJV-Daniel 9:24-27. The error of it's going, is that of a false conclusion, of who the "he" is, that is spoken of in Dan. 9:27.

The PM view interprets that word "he" to be the people of the prince that was come to destroy Jerusalem and the temple, of which did happen in 70 AD, and/or there is a futuristic, fictional character, still to come, that "church-ianty" loves to call "THE" Antichrist, as being a singular man, who shall sit in a newly built temple building.
From that viewpoint, PM sees the 70th week as unfulfilled, and therefore makes the assumption that God means to fulfill the 70th week at the very
end of time.

In the AM view, it is understood that the word "he" is in reference to the Messiah Jesus and His first appearance, and therefore sees the 70th week as fulfilled.
As you can see, way back in Daniel, it is upon that issue of interpretation, that sets the stage on fire, in opposition of the two schools of thought, hence the different interpretations about Revelation.

Therefore, by understanding the first few words, in the very first sentence about the 70 week prophecy, we can get it straight about Revelation.
KJV-Daniel 9:24 "Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people, and upon thy holy city".

The book of Daniel was to Israel, as the book of Revelation is to God's Born Again Saints.

 

[sovereigngrace]

Yes, I can answer the questions I posed.
So then, the first concept to be learned is, WHO was it that obtained the Victory over Satan?
Ans. Jesus

The second concept is, HOW was the victory over satan and his goods achieved?
Ans. Through Jesus' death, resurrection, Ascension, and by making available to all people, the Free Gift of God's Holy Spirit.
By our coming to God, through faith in Jesus, and asking for the gift of His Holy Spirt, through faith, we are made to be New creatures in Christ Jesus.

The third concept is, WHAT are the goods that are the spoils of the battle? (Since Jesus is the Victor, then those spoils/goods, which satan held captive, are now subject to the Victor, who is Jesus).
Ans. Through faith in Jesus, and our receiving God's Holy Spirit, are we NOW a child of God.
Where once we were one of satan's "goods", we now have been bought back to God, through the precious blood of Jesus. We have been spiritually translated into the KoG.
The blood of Christ was shed for the forgiveness of our sins. Therefore, for everyone who comes to God for forgiveness through faith in Christ, and ASKS for His gift of the Holy Spirit, they are permanently "sealed unto the Day of redemption", and Satan is "bound" from ever re-entering into us again.

The fourth concept to be learned is, WHEN did Jesus bind Satan, so that Jesus could spoil satan's goods?
Ans. In the day of Christ's sacrificial work for us on His cross, we have entered into the symbolic 1000 years of God's Grace. Everytime a person repents to God through Jesus, and ASKS for the Gift of God's Holy Spirit, Satan is permanently bound from re-entering God's Born Again Saint again.
This individual "binding" of satan shall continue in the present Age of God's Grace. But, when God closes the door on His Age of Grace, the "mystery of iniquity" will come into full swing, with nothing to hold it back.
2Thes.2[7] For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
The sure sign, that the Day of Christ's Glorious appearance from Heaven will be at hand, is when the "MoB" is manifested. There will then be a falling away [from faith], of which indeed shall separate the goats from the sheep.

I agree with all this. I would just add that the binding of Satan occurred through the sinless life, the atoning death and the victorious resurrection / ascension of Jesus.

 

[DavidPT]

In the above, you are responding to "SG's" 5th point, of which from my review SG is correct.

I interject by proposing that the PM view has concluded falsely in the book of Daniel about the 70 weeks of KJV-Daniel 9:24-27. The error of it's going, is that of a false conclusion, of who the "he" is, that is spoken of in Dan. 9:27.

The PM view interprets that word "he" to be the people of the prince that was come to destroy Jerusalem and the temple, of which did happen in 70 AD, and/or there is a futuristic, fictional character, still to come, that "church-ianty" loves to call "THE" Antichrist, as being a singular man, who shall sit in a newly built temple building.
From that viewpoint, PM sees the 70th week as unfulfilled, and therefore makes the assumption that God means to fulfill the 70th week at the very
end of time.

In the AM view, it is understood that the word "he" is in reference to the Messiah Jesus and His first appearance, and therefore sees the 70th week as fulfilled.
As you can see, way back in Daniel, it is upon that issue of interpretation, that sets the stage on fire, in opposition of the two schools of thought, hence the different interpretations about Revelation.

Therefore, by understanding the first few words, in the very first sentence about the 70 week prophecy, we can get it straight about Revelation.
KJV-Daniel 9:24 "Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people, and upon thy holy city".

The book of Daniel was to Israel, as the book of Revelation is to God's Born Again Saints.

You really should try and get your facts straight about some of this before making posts like this. While it is true that some Premils interpret Daniel 9:27 like that, not all Premils interpret it like that. Therefore, that is not the Premil view any more than Pretrib is the Premil view. Both views are something some Premils hold, but not all Premils do. I even know of some Amils who don't interpret Daniel 9:24-27 like you do. Meaning Amils I have encountered in the past on another board and forum. One Amil I encountered insisted that the 70 weeks are a literal 70 weeks, thus 490 days rather than 490 years, and that they haven't been fulfilled yet, none of the 70 weeks.

 

[sovereigngrace]

You really should try and get your facts straight about some of this before making posts like this. While it is true that some Premils interpret Daniel 9:27 like that, not all Premils interpret it like that. Therefore, that is not the Premil view any more than Pretrib is the Premil view. Both views are something some Premils hold, but not all Premils do. I even know of some Amils who don't interpret Daniel 9:24-27 like you do. Meaning Amils I have encountered in the past on another board and forum. One Amil I encountered insisted that the 70 weeks are a literal 70 weeks, thus 490 days rather than 490 years, and that they haven't been fulfilled yet, none of the 70 weeks.

He is talking about the typical view of each. Why can you not address the issues instead of diverting each topic?

 

[DavidPT]

He is talking about the typical view of each. Why can you not address the issues instead of diverting each topic?

I never noticed him saying 'some', and besides, Daniel 9:24-27 has zero to do with the Premil view. There are numerous Premils who interpret it like you do, like he does. How should you assume Premils who interpret those verses like you do, should address that? The point being, those verses have zero to do with Premil if there are some Premils that interpret those verses like you do.

 

[sovereigngrace]

I never noticed him saying 'some', and besides, Daniel 9:24-27 has zero to do with the Premil view. There are numerous Premils who interpret it like you do, like he does. How should you assume Premils who interpret those verses like you do, should address that? The point being, those verses have zero to do with Premil if there are some Premils that interpret those verses like you do.

I think he is making generalities, which we all do.

 

[grafted branch]

Isn't every generation wicked? As satan's "goods", don't they all need to be spiritually delivered/translated into the KoG, whereby the Holy Spirit within them keeps satan at bay from re-entering them again?

Yes that’s true, but Satan is bound for 1,000 years and the need to be spiritually delivered has existed through out all of time.

In this particular case, Jesus was talking about the Jews as a generation of people.

I agree with you on this point. I don’t know why those who think dual fulfillment is possible haven’t used this as their go to example.

If the house in Matthew 12:44 is the strong man’s house and the phrase “even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation” is referring to Jews then it would appear that the binding of Satan happens to both a generation and 1,000 years.

 

[Zao is life]

[REDACTED]

I don't see how the beast can come out of the abyss only at the close of the same period during which some were reigning with Christ after having been killed for refusing to receive its mark/number of its name (or his mark/number of his name).

Also I'm weary of the whole Amil/Premil debate. They always seem to wind up with mud slinging in the form of accusations or slurs or insinuations. That's why I've stayed out of this, and hopefully everyone will ignore this post of mine so as not to attempt to drag me into this thread for any more posts after this one.

 

[DavidPT]

The fourth concept to be learned is, WHEN did Jesus bind Satan, so that Jesus could spoil satan's goods?
Ans. In the day of Christ's sacrificial work for us on His cross, we have entered into the symbolic 1000 years of God's Grace. Everytime a person repents to God through Jesus, and ASKS for the Gift of God's Holy Spirit, Satan is permanently bound from re-entering God's Born Again Saint again.
This individual "binding" of satan shall continue in the present Age of God's Grace. But, when God closes the door on His Age of Grace, the "mystery of iniquity" will come into full swing, with nothing to hold it back.
2Thes.2[7] For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
The sure sign, that the Day of Christ's Glorious appearance from Heaven will be at hand, is when the "MoB" is manifested. There will then be a falling away [from faith], of which indeed shall separate the goats from the sheep.

Amil would make better sense IMO if the great falling away explained the ones satan deceives after the thousand years. Those that fall away from the faith, could their number be of whom is as the sand of the sea? Maybe, maybe not. I guess we won't know until Matthew 24:15-21 starts getting fulfilled. Keep in mind, that is just an opinion, and the reason why it might make better sense is because satan would be deceiving someone no longer deceived, meaning they are not deceived during the thousand years because they got saved during the thousand years, rather than someone already deceived. Then when satan is loosed they are deceived into falling away, thus satan isn't deceiving someone already deceived during the thousand years, but is deceiving someone that was no longer deceived during the thousand years.

 

[Earburner]

You really should try and get your facts straight about some of this before making posts like this. While it is true that some Premils interpret Daniel 9:27 like that, not all Premils interpret it like that. Therefore, that is not the Premil view any more than Pretrib is the Premil view. Both views are something some Premils hold, but not all Premils do.

OK then. If I am out of sorts with the PM view, then
maybe you can update me, on how Daniel 9:27 shall be fulfilled, according to your understanding of the PM view.