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Calvinism Refuted

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archierieus

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Who did the appointing? Was it not God? No one can appoint himself to eternal life. the Greek word derived from tetagomai comes from a military term, with the meaning of arrangement. In the military, no soldier arranges his own position, he does what his superiors decide. So it is in this instance, no matter how you slice and dice it. Those who were appointed to eternal life believed, and that appointment was not by them, it was by God. That is the plain meaning and reading of that verse.

The etymological background is helpful but KIM that this is not talking about an army. The verse is silent about who is doing the arranging. What it DOES tell us is that it is a perfect participle, that is, being arranged or placed in order, ongoing action. It also ties that in with their believing. In the word order as it appears, those who believed (aorist) are being set in order for eternal life. That is the 'plain meaning and reading of that verse.'
 
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archierieus

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I lay down my life for the sheep. (***Limited Atonement***)


Incorrect. There is no language or grammar in the verse you have quoted to suggest any limitation in language or intent. The verse does not say that Jesus lays down His life ONLY for those sheep. The discourse is about His sheep, and His sheep are the focus of what He is saying.

And I have other sheep that are not of this fold. I must bring them also, and they will listen to my voice. (***There is no option here, they will listen***)


As Jesus said in Jn. 6, those who listen to the Father and believe what He says are the ones who will come to Jesus. You are quite incorrect in your treatment of the text here. The verb is NOT an imperative, it is Future Active INDICATIVE. It is a statement of what they will do rather than an imperative.
 
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archierieus

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Originally Posted by cygnusx1
why do the none Calvinists ignore the first part of this text ?

John 6:44 - No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day.


I certainly don't ignore it.

why the difficulty coming to Christ ?

what possible reason beyond mans TD can be given for the impossibility of coming to Christ unless God uses power ?

where does that leave the none Calvinists "free-will" defense argument ?

Perhaps there is a misunderstanding about the 'free-will' concept. Speaking from my own understanding of Scripture, I see God enlightening people, drawing them, empowering them, strengthening their will and both encouraging and helping them make the decision to give their lives to Jesus. I spent an hour and a half with someone this evening in that very situation, and I was privileged to be able to appeal to him in Christ's behalf to give his life to Jesus and accept Christ's Lordship in his life. At the end of that time, he prayed and asked God to help him give his life to Jesus.
 
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archierieus

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John Gill really helps here from his commentary on 1 Tim 2:4

John Gill is well known as a High Calvinist expositor. Citing an expositor or commentator is in the same category as citing, for example, 1 Esdras or any other such writing. They are not Scripture, they are man's ideas. In the case of Gill, from what I have seen he mixes Scripture with his own ideas. Calvinist rhetoric.
 
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archierieus

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well 2 Esdras actually IS the words of God though

as well as 1 Enoch

Whatever the perception or belief about the Deuterocanonicals, one can definitely say that citing a commentator or expositor in support of a position is at least in the same category, and if one is going to cite an expositor then one should not object to citing from the Deuterocanon. Personally, I would not cite from either, but only from the canonical Scriptures.
 
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archierieus

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So, of interest here, from this student's perspective, is Scripture, and to methodically go through the Scripture references cited in support of an ideology, and determine the true meaning of the Scriptures. We see above a good example of how misconstruing a verse can significantly affect its application--that is, making something an imperative when in fact it is a future indicative. This careful analysis will help determine whether the purported Scriptural basis for the ideology is in fact supportive. Once the various Scriptures presented have been carefully studied, then it will be good to recap and summarize, and we shall have come a long way toward the goal of seeing whether or not an ideology is Scripturally correct.
 
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drstevej

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So, of interest here, from this student's perspective, is Scripture, and to methodically go through the Scripture references cited in support of an ideology, and determine the true meaning of the Scriptures. We see above a good example of how misconstruing a verse can significantly affect its application--that is, making something an imperative when in fact it is a future indicative. This careful analysis will help determine whether the purported Scriptural basis for the ideology is in fact supportive. Once the various Scriptures presented have been carefully studied, then it will be good to recap and summarize, and we shall have come a long way toward the goal of seeing whether or not an ideology is Scripturally correct.

Archierian Rhetoric. The thoughts of man.


What makes your insight better than Gill's?
 
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&Abel

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Whatever the perception or belief about the Deuterocanonicals, one can definitely say that citing a commentator or expositor in support of a position is at least in the same category, and if one is going to cite an expositor then one should not object to citing from the Deuterocanon. Personally, I would not cite from either, but only from the canonical Scriptures.

unfortunately some of the most detailed information is contained in those books and make no mistake about it...they are important for today's christian
 
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cygnusx1

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[/i]

I certainly don't ignore it.

[/indent]
Perhaps there is a misunderstanding about the 'free-will' concept. Speaking from my own understanding of Scripture, I see God enlightening people, drawing them, empowering them, strengthening their will and both encouraging and helping them make the decision to give their lives to Jesus. I spent an hour and a half with someone this evening in that very situation, and I was privileged to be able to appeal to him in Christ's behalf to give his life to Jesus and accept Christ's Lordship in his life. At the end of that time, he prayed and asked God to help him give his life to Jesus.


but still no direct answers .......... why would that be > :)
 
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archierieus

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The thoughts of man.


What makes your insight better than Gill's?

The post you are responding to was indeed my thoughts--a reflection on process and, of course, not intended to be an exposition of Scripture. What counts is Scripture, and faithfulness to the text as it reads. And, in a discussion venue, doing so with courtesy, respect and civility, which are among the fruits of the Holy Spirit and evidence of a Christ-changed life.
 
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archierieus

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but still no direct answers .......... why would that be > :)

??? If you are referring to Jn. 6, that has been discussed on this and anothr thread, and direct answers shown in the passage.
 
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heymikey80

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I've been expecting some kind of response to this point. Well, to a number of points set out on a number of threads, but this one in particular there still seems to be a lot of denial on.

If there are no responses to this point, I'll take it as accepted.

For the record again, the five uses in 1 John are:
No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God’s seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God.

Beloved, let us love one another, for love is from God, and whoever loves has been born of God and knows God.

Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves whoever has been born of him.

For everyone who has been born of God overcomes the world. And this is the victory that has overcome the world— our faith.

We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning, but he who was born of God protects him, and the evil one does not touch him.
These results are dependent on being born of God. There's reason to include 1 John 5:1 among them. It's what John's attributing to New Birth.

And he attributes faith there.

It already has been responded to, some pages back I believe. Did you miss the post?
It was actually cited there. Was that your mistake? Is there no response to my response? So you haven't answered the posting -- there's no posting after it.

I point out again John's comprehensive assessment of the New Birth as being the source of each attribute he discusses. It's clear this hasn't been responded to. 1 John's pervasive on this point. There's no reason to consider 1 John 5:1 an exception -- certainly a habit that really, as we'll see, doesn't exist. But let's take the tiers one at a time as to why this isn't a reasoned argument.

John's not in a habit about talking in one tense to the point of making false statements. John knows Greek. If everything you said about John's habit were true, he'd still be using grammar to come up with a false statement. Greek grammar is being contradicted to make this kind of argument.

But I'll continue. I'll extend this argument, because it deserves extending.
...habit of putting believing in the continuing action, and being born (again) as a one time action, always in the past...
This is dismissive of what John is saying. To conclude this is a habit, and not a fact, doesn't make a whole lot of sense actually. You'd have to conclude John's temporal (or ontological) grammar doesn't reflect the exact facts he's trying to establish and communicate. In other words, what John's primary focus is -- this argument dismisses as not the case.

It dismisses the exact thrust of John's assertion. Someone who is believing in Jesus has already been born of God, and you see the continuing effect of New Birth appearing in the continuing participle of "believing". The whole idea of this being John's habitual statement is actually based on the fact that John is pervasively talking about New Birth as the past continuing cause of believing -- the participle indicates what's continuing, the verb indicates something is continuing after New Birth.

Slip this knot, and John's sentence ends up meaning nothing at all, actually. In concluding against this verse, the assertion must be made that belief is not related to New Birth as a source or really as anything else. Belief doesn't cause New Birth in non-Calvinist theology. The relationship isn't merely deprecated. It's not true in nearly any sense. Not until New Birth is restored as a source of believing.

The "habitual" use of continuing tense for "belief" doesn't even hold up. In fact it doesn't hold up under even light scrutiny. The use of "belief" as purely continuous is actually not the case in 1 John 3:23, 4:1, 4:16. John isn't obsessed with this construction. So dismissing John's temporal grammar on the basis of some habit doesn't carry.

Finally, even if you were to force this habit argument, John's habit of basing each attribute on the New Birth is completely pervasive. To assert a non-pervasive habit prevails over a pervasive habit, that would be inconsistent: to conclude against the grammar and the habits of John.
Taking it just as it reads, believing could have begun BEFORE being born of God, CONCURRENTLY with or AFTER. 'Believing' is continuing action. HOWEVER, if a student approaches the text with a presupposition that regeneration precedes faith, then there is the danger of eisegesis. Instead, it is good to take the text exactly as it reads, without any agenda.
As a result, it is not credible to assert that John's using Greek grammar poorly, and assert that this is taking "the text exactly as it reads, without any agenda." The fact is, taking the grammar "just as it reads", believing Jesus is the Christ cannot have occurred before New Birth.

  • John's major point is that the two are related.
  • John's grammar puts New Birth in precedence. Say it's logical -- then believing is dependent on it, and can't have preceded it temporally. Say it's temporal: then believing isn't prior to it in time.
The point is carried. 1 John 5:1 is thus assessed to the Calvinistic side on basis of grammar and John's habit of declaring New Birth the precedent for each personal attribute he relates to it.
 
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the particular baptist

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John Gill is well known as a High Calvinist expositor. Citing an expositor or commentator is in the same category as citing, for example, 1 Esdras or any other such writing. They are not Scripture, they are man's ideas. In the case of Gill, from what I have seen he mixes Scripture with his own ideas. Calvinist rhetoric.

You citing your ideas is still your ideas, rhetoric, and its no different than citing 1 Esdras either. There is one difference, I'll take John Gill over your understanding of scripture.
 
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drstevej

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The post you are responding to was indeed my thoughts--a reflection on process and, of course, not intended to be an exposition of Scripture. What counts is Scripture, and faithfulness to the text as it reads. And, in a discussion venue, doing so with courtesy, respect and civility, which are among the fruits of the Holy Spirit and evidence of a Christ-changed life.

Amid your lecture you missed the question.

What makes your insight better than Gill's?
 
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the particular baptist

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[/color]

Incorrect. There is no language or grammar in the verse you have quoted to suggest any limitation in language or intent. The verse does not say that Jesus lays down His life ONLY for those sheep. The discourse is about His sheep, and His sheep are the focus of what He is saying.

[/color]

As Jesus said in Jn. 6, those who listen to the Father and believe what He says are the ones who will come to Jesus. You are quite incorrect in your treatment of the text here. The verb is NOT an imperative, it is Future Active INDICATIVE. It is a statement of what they will do rather than an imperative.


This is your take on the passage, however, John Owen wins.
 
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nobdysfool

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The etymological background is helpful but KIM that this is not talking about an army. The verse is silent about who is doing the arranging. What it DOES tell us is that it is a perfect participle, that is, being arranged or placed in order, ongoing action. It also ties that in with their believing. In the word order as it appears, those who believed (aorist) are being set in order for eternal life. That is the 'plain meaning and reading of that verse.'


I know this is not talking about an army, but the word is used in that same way, and it derives its meaning from that concept. The same word is translated as "ordain", with the same intent of meaning. When God ordains something, He arranges circumstances and events so that what He ordains will come to pass. It is clear that the ordination to eternal life which those who believed experienced was not from themselves, by themselves, but was from another, and the obvious conclusion is it was God who ordained them to eternal life, their belief being a result of that ordination, not the cause of it. It stands to reason that ordination by God precedes the event which is ordained.
 
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the particular baptist

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The post you are responding to was indeed my thoughts--a reflection on process and, of course, not intended to be an exposition of Scripture. What counts is Scripture, and faithfulness to the text as it reads.


I see you explaining away many passages so that elect doesnt really mean elect, ordained doesnt mean ordained, beforehand prepared doesnt mean that, will and draw ect... So you saying faithfulness to the text as it reads is a bit of an oxymoron.

I dont think anyone can say that their thoughts or reflections on scripture are purely their own. Everyone has presuppositions and operating assumptions inevitably derived from those presuppositions. There is nothing new under the sun.


And, in a discussion venue, doing so with courtesy, respect and civility, which are among the fruits of the Holy Spirit and evidence of a Christ-changed life.


There is great temptation to act out in the flesh and use words to injure and maim, and thank God for His Spirit being there to rein in our flesh, but dont you think at times that somewhat aggressive communication is warranted, when orthodoxy is dismissed and folks repeatedly intentionaly mis-represent the others position, and say that Calvinists are in no way saved people ? I am not talking about you but it has been going on in the last few threads discussing Calvinism.
 
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nobdysfool

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I dont think anyone can say that their thoughts or reflections on scripture are purely their own. Everyone has presuppositions and operating assumptions inevitably derived from those presuppositions. There is nothing new under the sun.

Ah, but only Calvinists are guilty of that, don't ya know? The anti-Calvinists are as pure as the driven snow against such a charge being leveled at them. It's only those "ee-eevil Calvinists" who are guilty of such blatant disregard for the ascendancy of man's precious and all-powerful "free will"

thefivesolas said:
There is great temptation to act out in the flesh and use words to injure and maim, and thank God for His Spirit in being there to rein in our flesh, but dont you think at times that somewhat aggressive communication is warranted, when orthodoxy is dismissed and folks repeatedly intentionaly mis-represent the others position, and popishly say that Calvinists are in no way saved people ?

Certainly such slander and falsehood needs to be dealt with in the strongest possible terms, and in a forceful and direct way, but in keeping with civility and decorum. That's a fine line to walk, especially when it seems that there is some deliberate bias in the handling of such issues. But we soldier on, knowing that strong responses against such slander and falsehoods serves to expose those who engage in such behavior for the hypocrites they are.
 
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