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C.A.R.M. 's homosexuality webpage

Texas Lynn

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As has been pointed out before, is it just possible that perhaps the problem was that the people of Sodom wanted to RAPE the angels, not that they wanted to have homosexual sex with them?

Or (even more likely) the mob consisted primarily of teenage boys and young men who taunted the angels essentially calling then "queers" meaning they take the passive position in male-male intercourse, as teenage boys still do today in every neighborhood.
 
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katautumn

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CARM is for serious lulz. I can't trust any website that says artificial insemination is adultery and that vasectomies, unless the wife has a life-threatening medical condition that would make pregnancy potentially fatal, are sinful.
 
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Texas Lynn

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CARM is for serious lulz. I can't trust any website that says artificial insemination is adultery and that vasectomies, unless the wife has a life-threatening medical condition that would make pregnancy potentially fatal, are sinful.

Good for you. It definitely represents one of the farther shores of the American religio-political tradition. I have seen no other "Christian" message board where meanspiritedness on the part of the majority right-wing participants is so blatantly encouraged.
 
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JohnT

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Be careful about ad hominem attacks (see the bold) they may cause problems with the mods.

I am fanatical about having all come to a saving knowledge of Jesus Christ, for he is the only way to heaven.

Now when you have something substantial to say, or REASONABLY try to refute something I posted, I will reply to you.

Meanwhile, STOP WITH THE PERSONAL ATTACKS
 
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Lord_Barthok_Soc

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The experts didn't "go wrong" so much as "get influenced by the society they lived in". Much like the experts who thought slavery was good, or those who thought interracial couplings were of the devil. Or, if you do some reading into the background of Romans and its subsequent translations, the argument between scholars claiming that pre- and post-world war 2 translations/interpretations disagree, in that some are pro-semetic and others anti-semetic, due to cultural influence.

Incidentally, how is your Greek? As a fluent speaker myself, I might point out that that your copy-pasted quote isn't the original text, but a translation into modern Greek written in 1550. I could see that even if I couldn't read Greek, because you forgot to delete the "Stephanus" off the end of your quote. A brief search will show that the Stephanus New Testament was written in 1550. Ooops.

And Plato has everything to do with it, as Paul is alluding to Plato's writings, probably to connect with his Gentile audience, much as he quoted/alluded to the Old Testament in order to connect with his Jewish audience. Paul introduces a Greek philosophical concept (from the "pagan philosophers") by refering to "natural" and "unnatural" actions; these are nowhere in the OT, as Jewish tradition didn't think like that.

So before you claim what you deem "natural" or not, perhaps we should find out what the Greek philosophers meant by it?

Also, in that passage, the Greek word for homosexual does not appear once. In the list of "sins" in Romans, there are several ambiguous words that have been translated in different ways due to cultural influence (such as malakoi, lit. "soft" translated as weak/effeminate/masturbators/etc). What you are losing in translation is the reiteration and emphasis on the sin being lust and passion, satisfying the flesh in the easiest way. For example, having sex with a young boy until he grows up or you get married, just to get your dose of sex. A very common Greek practice, considered "unnatural" in that it's only purpose is personal pleasure. Sex in lust wasn't "making love", it was using another as an object to sate your own desires.


Compare this to, for example, sex/rape in prison. It isn't about love or desire. It is about humiliation, raping them to remove their status as a man, by treating them like a woman.

Also, go back a chapter where Abraham is arguing with God, and it gets to the point where God says that, if there are even 10 righteous people in the city, He will not destroy it. So if the sin is homosexuality, then in the whole city there were not even 10 people who weren't gay.

Think about that. A whole city gay, in a time where widespread travel and communication was slow, unreliable, difficult, dangerous. Compared to today, with almsot isntant communication, easy and affordable travel, and even the gayest city has more than 10 straight people there.

Does not compute. Does not compute. Arrgh.


This struck me as the most cleverly crafted, sinister part of the whole page. Very carefully worded. The first sentence, for example: What it should read, is that "the Greek word aρσενοκοίτης is translated as "homosexual" in the NASB." But instead it states the "word homosexual is the Greek word aρσενοκοίτης". Using language to subconciously bias the reader's view.

The whole section is crafted to lend authority to what they say; to make it sound like they've done research and know everything there is to know, therefore the reader can trust anything they say on biblical referencing without question or having to bother reading further themselves. People today prefer that. They don't want to think for themselves, so it's easy to reassure the average person with passage like that.

On the webpage, it goes further, quoting that they get their definition from Strong's dictionary, "The exhaustive concordance of the Bible : Showing every word of the test of the common English version of the canonical books, and every occurrence of each word in regular order." Wow. If that doesn't impress people, nothing will.

Never mind the fact that aρσενοκοίτης doesn't appear anywhere else in the bible other than when Paul mentions it twice, isn't the Greek word for homosexual, isn't even a Greek word but a coined phrase, the meaning of which cannot be deciphered as the only other appearances in history are those writings alluding or referring to what Paul wrote.

So people take their cultural influence and use that to write what they think the word should mean.

All we do is quote Scripture;

Right. That's more than half the problem. How about praying, thinking, using critical judgement, getting to know people, looking at the world?


God wrote? Forgive me, but man wrote, inspired by God. At best, God wrote through man. I have several pages in my personal journal of the same thing; God speaking through me, in written words.

Think the bible we have today is infallible? What about the existence of the Jehovah's Witness Bible? How did that happen?

And who are you to assume you know without doubt or error God's will and opinions, or that we are trying to change them?

If we don't argue the case, who will? You?

I'm not arguing with God; I'm arguing with people who think I'm evil/sin itself. I don't mean that as a personal slight; I don't know you. I'm thinking of all the people who have openly and honestly claimed outrageous things about homosexuals to my face, such as them being the devil's henchmen, bringing about the downfall of society.

Ultimately it is his judgment each of you will face, and I hope you do it as a humble Christian rather than as a PROUD homosexual.

Just FYI, I am not a proud homosexual. I'm merely an unashamed one. How can I be proud about something neither I nor anyone else has done? About a state of being, an element of my personal makeup/character?
 
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katautumn

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AHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHA! Pot, meet kettle. Shall I quote what you said in your "stellar" rebuttal to the OP?

Blah blah blah ...

Sorry, but your whining is at odds with the facts.

WHAT DOES A PAGAN PHILOSOPHER HAVE TO DO WITH SCRIPTURE??? (((SHAKING MY HEAD)))

YOU SIMPLY FAIL TO REBUT THE CARM POSITION, AGAIN. (SIGH)

Honestly, you will be more fruitful by trying to obey the plain truth of what God said rather than trying to find sophomoric ways to evade the plain truth.
(emphasis mine)

Howl and whine that we are unloving, etc

Ultimately it is his judgment each of you will face, and I hope you do it as a humble Christian rather than as a PROUD homosexual.

No, no ad hominem or personal attacks in that post.
 
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OllieFranz

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I just spent over four hours composing a response to John T's reply, only to have it disappear into the void. It is so frustrating.

Not that he would have really read it anyway. He has only scanned some of my longer posts for phrases that he can respond to by pasting copyrighted commentaries that often do not address the same points that I made. This reply was a partial exception.

Still, some people do read whole posts, even the long ones. I am sure that I am not the only one who does. So it would have been worth it for them. I'll try again tomorrow, if I can dredge up the energy.

Lord Barthok, thanks for your post. It is not exactly what I wrote and lost, but there are a lot of good points
 
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KCKID

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JohnT, we don't know each other so I certainly don't want to get into fisticuffs with you over this or ANY issue. The point is, however, that some folks (and, if the shoe fits ...) get so caught up in the Bible that their enthusiasm for 'the words' contained within the book are delivered as an almost frenzied tirade. They are actually ANGRY with people they don't even know or care to know simply because of WORDS from a book! THAT is fanaticism. As a consequence this negatively affects other people who feel that they have done nothing wrong ...certainly nothing to warrant such over the top zeal from those that are no less sinners than they are.

Furthermore - and this is the most damning thing as far as I'm concerned - the 'wrath' aimed at another individual through 'the words' is NOT that of God but of the poster him/herself who believes (perhaps sincerely but incorrectly) that he/she is the mouth-piece for God. YOU, JohnT, are no more the mouth-piece for God than I am! The same can be said for others on the forum who call themselves Christian but have an alternative view to your own on this issue.

Was that substantial enough for you?
 
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KCKID

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If it's any consolation to you - even though I know that it isn't - the very same thing pertaining to 'lost work' has happened to many of us previously. Working on a lengthy post for ages, only to have it disappear into the nether regions of space, is SO absolutely frustrating. If I was still in Kansas and that happened to me I'd get so annoyed that I'd go out and kick over a whole field of wheat!
 
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C

catlover

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CARM is conservative propoganda, plus they dislike everyone who doesn't agree with them...the site used to label Catholics and Adventists as cults.
 
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Texas Lynn

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WHAT DOES A PAGAN PHILOSOPHER HAVE TO DO WITH SCRIPTURE??? (((SHAKING MY HEAD)))

Keep shaking. Paul was as a Hellenistic Jew obviously informed of Neo-Platonism and influenced by same. This stuff did not occur in a vacuum, you know.
 
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Texas Lynn

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CARM is conservative propoganda, plus they dislike everyone who doesn't agree with them...the site used to label Catholics and Adventists as cults.

I think it still does. And while they have rules mandating courtesy as most message boards do, discourtesy to liberal Christians and nontheists is agressively encouraged, and the staff there are among the ones who take the lead in flaming the people who intrude into their sad, scared, sadistic little world.
 
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JohnT

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Originally Posted by JohnT
We agree on that; it is universally and CONSISTENTLY condemned. Therefore God is not “politically correct. Imagine that! God says what he means, and means what he says.


Also the fact that homosexuality is called “sinful” is also good news. It offers hope to those who repent, and follow Jesus when he said several times, “Go and sin no more”



If you noticed, I quoted from the American Standard Version (1901) and the Greek Texts, both before WW1. Therefore your objection is moot. Your connection between slavery and homosexuality is illogical balderdash.

As a matter of fact, I have done extensive reading on the transmission and translation of the Bible. Nothing of what you allege has been substantiated. If you can provide proof of your allegation, that would be interesting. Until you do, you fail to make your point.

In 1527–28 he published his first complete Bible in Latin, and in 1531 he completed his great Dictionarium seu linguae latinae thesaurus, a Latin dictionary that marks an epoch in the history of lexicography, not only for Latin but also for all other languages. Francis I of France made him king's printer for Hebrew and Latin works in 1539; in 1540 he became de facto king's printer also for Greek. He was commissioned in 1541 to supply the king's library with books printed in the Greek type of Claude Garamond. He prepared the first printed editions of many works by ancient Greek and Roman authors. Among his Latin editions, his Virgil of 1532 is noteworthy. He also published grammars and other educational texts.
Estienne, Robert I. (2008). Encyclopædia Britannica. Deluxe Edition. Chicago: Encyclopædia Britannica.

OOPS to you, Stephanus printed it. He did not translate it.
Would you like me to quote the UBS version, or the Byzantine Majority Text versions? I left the tag on the quotes so anyone could see it as a deliberate footnote, so it is not as you allege, an oops. The Stephanus, commonly called the “Textus Receptus” is the basis for the King James version, and was the version used by Erasmus.

And Plato has everything to do with it, as Paul is alluding to Plato's writings...
Since would an Apostle, trained under Gamaliel ever stoop to “allude” to a PAGAN philosopher when he knew that his letters were Scripture?

So before you claim what you deem "natural" or not, perhaps we should find out what the Greek philosophers meant by it?
If the issue was what I deem “natural” then the suggestion would be valid. However I do not stray from Scripture, and that, as you noted above is consistent.

You present an argument from silence, and that only proves silence. What you fail to take into consider is the many OT passages, as well as the other clear NT passages

Those men wanted to have sexual relations with the angels who appeared also as males. Does it make sense to claim that God destroyed two cities because the inhabitants weren't nice to visitors? et al...
[/quote]
Compare this to, for example, sex/rape in prison. It isn't about love or desire, it's about being someone's b****!
We can agree that homosexual activity is evil.

You interpret too much, The issue for the city is not homosexuality per se, but righteousness. That includes sins of every sort.


And your point here is what?
____________________
1. The word "homosexual" in the NASB version is the Greek aρσενοκοίτης (arsenokoites). It occurs two times in the New Testament. The KJV translates it as abuser of (ones) self with mankind once, and defile (ones) self with mankind once. 1 one who lies with a male as with a female, sodomite, homosexual. (Strong, J. (1996).

The 1901 ASV, the KJV, translate it as "abusers of themselves." The NASB and NKJV translate it as "homosexuals." The NIV as "homosexual offenders." The RSV as "sexual perverts."
========================================================
Your annoyance is with CARM—they wrote it as well as the lexicons of the Greek Bible. DO you want me to quote from Arnt and Gingrich?

.

This response is mere huff and puff. It blusters but does not provide proof other than mere opinion

That is the title of the reference. Sorry if you do not like it.

Regarding 1 Corinthians 6:9, try this out:
This term is sometimes rendered “effeminate,” although in contemporary English usage such a translation could be taken to refer to demeanor rather than behavior. BDAG 613 s.v. μαλακός 2 has “pert. to being passive in a same-sex relationship, effeminate esp. of catamites, of men and boys who are sodomized by other males in such a relationship.” L&N 88.281 states, “the passive male partner in homosexual intercourse - ‘homosexual.’ …As in Greek, a number of other languages also have entirely distinct terms for the active and passive roles in homosexual intercourse.” See also the discussion in G. D. Fee, First Corinthians (NICNT), 243–44. A number of modern translations have adopted the phrase “male prostitutes” for μαλακοί in 1 Cor 6:9 (NIV, NRSV, NLT) but this could be misunderstood by the modern reader to mean “males who sell their services to women,” while the term in question appears, at least in context, to relate to homosexual activity between males. Furthermore, it is far from certain that prostitution as commonly understood (the selling of sexual favors) is specified here, as opposed to a consensual relationship. Thus the translation “passive homosexual partners” has been used here.


On this term BDAG 135 s.v. ἀρσενοκοίτης states, “a male who engages in sexual activity w. a pers. of his own sex, pederast 1 Cor 6:9…of one who assumes the dominant role in same-sex activity, opp. μαλακός…1 Ti 1:10; Pol 5:3. Cp. Ro 1:27.” L&N 88.280 states, “a male partner in homosexual intercourse - ‘homosexual.’…It is possible that ἀρσενοκοίτης in certain contexts refers to the active male partner in homosexual intercourse in contrast with μαλακός, the passive male partner.” Since there is a distinction in contemporary usage between sexual orientation and actual behavior, the qualification “practicing” was supplied in the translation, following the emphasis in BDAG.
From Biblical Studies Press. (2006; 2006). The NET Bible First Edition; Bible. English. NET Bible.; The NET Bible. Biblical Studies Press.



[/quote] You fail to mention common sense. That is taking the Bible as meaning what it says first, and clearly

This fails to understand the nature and transmission of Scripture.


By definition, you certainly are arguing with God; your post says, God did not mean what he wrote.” Balderdash
I did not say that YOU are … All I wrote was a generic description, but hey, if the shoe fits…

That's like being proud of the size of your penis. At the end of the day, it's just folly.
Totally unnecessary comment
 
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Texas Lynn

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[Originally Posted by JohnT]Your connection between slavery and homosexuality is illogical balderdash.

Oppression is always interconnected.

Since would an Apostle, trained under Gamaliel ever stoop to “allude” to a PAGAN philosopher when he knew that his letters were Scripture?

Your comment is uninformed for several reasons: as an intellectual Paul would never regard it as "stooping" as you sneeringly put it to discuss the wisdom of the ages from all sources. Paul had no knowledge that at some vague time in the future his letters would be considered "scripture". Also the assumption is illogical. Paul received his knowledge from the world he lived in and did not live in a vacuum.

We can agree that homosexual activity is evil.

Perhaps you and the other poster; not you and every other Christian.


you certainly are arguing with God; your post says, God did not mean what he wrote.”

God did not write the Pauline epistles. A very flawed man, Paul, is attributed as having written them.

Totally unnecessary comment

It was very appropriate.
 
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CaDan

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Try Theology-online.
 
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katautumn

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Okay, okay, since I can no longer handle the irony overload in JohnT's posts I just have to respond to the CARM article (since JohnT's posts are a confusing mish-mash of overlapping multi-quotes). I want to feel I've at least contributed something to this thread.

It is interesting to note that the first passage CARM lists as "proof" that homosexuality is something terrible is Leviticus 18:22. What's interesting to note is that when God commanded Moses to instruct the Israelites when they left Egypt and went to the land of Canaan, is that the Jews were meant to be a completely separate people. The difference between the Jew and the Gentile was meant to be so clearcut that there would never be any question whether or not the people of Israel were God's chosen. This meant that God had to instruct Moses to deliver some pretty serious rules for the Jewish people.

In Leviticus 18, there is an entire list of sexual practices that were considered normal in Egypt and Canaan. In order for the Israelites to maintain their strict separateness from the inhabitants of Canaan, it was imperative that they live under a strict code of sexuality related ethics. To point out verse 22 and ignore the others and dismiss them as, "well, that was the old law for the Jews. Jesus abolished the law" is foolhardy, at best. There are many Christians who engage in some of these sexual "abominations".

Leviticus 18:19 said:
"You shall not approach a woman to have intercourse with her while she is unclean from menstruation.

Now, Christians will say, "but, but wait just a minute! Out of all those commands, the only one God calls an abomination is the homosexuality."

Wrong! Let us look now at verses 29&30 from the eighteenth chapter of Leviticus:

Everyone who does any of these abominations shall be cut off from among his people. 30 Heed my charge, then, not to defile yourselves by observing the abominable customs that have been observed before you. I, the LORD, am your God."

CARM then goes on to cite Leviticus 20:13, which calls for the execution of "homosexual offenders". It is interesting to note that God also states that a husband who lays with his wife during her menstrual period they shall both be cut off from their people. Leviticus 20 also commands the execution of children who are disobedient to their parents. How does Leviticus 20:13 apply to the Christian today, but the other verses no longer apply to Christians as they were "the old law".

The next passage cited is 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 which gives an entire list of people who will supposedly not "inherit the kingdom of heaven". It includes idolaters, liars, the greedy, the alcoholic, the people having pre-marital sex, people who covet, people who use swear words ("revilers", as the Bible calls them), etc. So does this mean if you are drunk and cussing when Jesus comes to rapture the Church, you won't go to heaven even if you've professed Christ as your Lord and Savior? What if you are a Christian couple and you slipped up and you're having sex before marriage when Jesus comes back?

Also, the Bible does not state that everyone who does not "inherit the kingdom of heaven" will automatically go to hell. For example, Bible scholars believe that only those who will die and go to heaven before the rapture will be joint heirs with Jesus in the kingdom of heaven, but those whose bodies are "caught up in the sky" at the time of rapture will not inherit the kingdom of heaven, as no mortal body can inherit the Kingdom.

So this does not mean that gays and lesbians are not really saved and will burn in hell any more than the alcoholic or the person who uses cuss words.

Granted, the Bible does not support homosexuality. Nor does it support using the internet, working outside of the home, putting your kids in public school or having sex with your wife while she's menstruating.
 
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Texas Lynn

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It's the rw version of ~E~lsewhere.

RW? E? No habla.

Theology Online is like the World Headquarters of the rough tough cream puffs. Bonus: they want a theocratic monarchy. It's weirder than TheologyWeb's clicque, CARM's pseudointellectual hatemongers, in that I've never seen so many verbal bullies who are such physical wimps in one place.
 
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JohnT

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Oppression is always interconnected.
Do I agree that one group oppressing another is wrong? Yes.

But to equate those who were taken against their will, having no choice in the matter and being forced to be slaves of another with homosexual behavior is indeed absurd.

Homosexual behavior is a learned behavior, and the Bible calls it a sin. To accept your premise, one would have to conclude that being a black person is likewise a sin.

Your logic concludes that those who practice bestiality or swingers likewise would not be sinners.


Go argue with Paul, for he wrote "“All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work” (2 Tim. 3:16–17)




Perhaps you and the other poster; not you and every other Christian.
That was a facetious remark. The point is that God calls homosexuality a sin in various places. In that he is consistent; no one is ever going to change the mind of God on that. He wrote what he wrote.


God did not write the Pauline epistles. A very flawed man, Paul, is attributed as having written them.
All humankind is flawed, but that has no bearing on his writing of his Epistles.

Peter wrote (2 Peter 1:21) For no prophecy ever came by the will of man: but men spake from God, being moved by the Holy Spirit. American Standard Version.

If prophecy is inspired, then so also is every other canonical book.
“All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work” (2 Tim. 3:16–17).
Jesus described the Scriptures as the very “word that comes out of the mouth of God” (Matt. 4:4, 7, 10). They were written by men who spoke from God. Paul said his writings were “words . . . which the Holy Spirit teaches” (1 Cor. 2:13). As Jesus said to the Pharisees, “How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him ‘Lord’?” (Matt. 22:43​
Geisler, N. L. (1999).
Baker encyclopedia of Christian apologetics
. Baker reference library (92). Grand Rapids, Mich.: Baker Books.



Finally, there is the words of Jesus Himself in John 17:17 "...thy word is truth." No greater authority than Jesus on earth, yet those holding your position demean that authority, saying that you know better than Him. Oy Vey!


It was very appropriate.
The mentioning of genitalia is INAPPROPRIATE on this PUBLIC board, especially considering the manner that it came. There was no context that would make it appropriate, and discussing the physical characteristics of any genitalia is not appropriate on this board.
 
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