TCassidy
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- Jun 24, 2017
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Can you quote one bible translation, produced prior to 1382, that uses the term "Holy Spirit." I will wait, giving you time to do a Google search that you can copy and paste.No, it is the point. Prior to 1382, hagios spiritus" was always rendered "Holy Spirit.
That is because English is not the original language of the scriptures.There are no references to "pneuma" as "ghost" in the original language of the scriptures.
That is because English did not exist in 456 BC. Or 456 AD for that matter.As far back as 456 BC, the Greek usage (Aeschylus) pneuma never supported "ghost".
That is because English did not exist in 300 BC. Or 300 AD for that matter.As far back as the early 300 BC, the Greek usage (Herodotus) phantom never equated to "spirit".
It is moot as it does not address the English words "spirit" and "ghost" which is the topic of this discussion.Now, would like to say that the above material is lying?
All your cut and paste just makes you look desperate to win an argument you are not qualified to engage in.
Now focus. In 1611 the English words "spirit" and "ghost" were synonyms. (That is a big word that means "meant the same thing.")
As they meant the same thing in 1611 it is an error to claim one or the other is a mistake.
They may not mean the same thing in early 21st century English but the KJV is not in early 21st century English. It is in early 17th century English when the two words meant the same thing.
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