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Biblical Contradictions

JasperJackson

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And how was it determined that each part is as it is described in this list?
For the most part it's self-evidential. Is there a particular part of the Bible that you think is difficult to categorise?


The need for extra study stems from God's desire for the people of the chuirch to work together?

Given that countless people have been killed over arguments that are basically, "My interpretation of the Bible is right and yours is wrong!", I'd say that it didn't work very well. Not really a plan I'd expect to see from God...
At the risk of derailing a thread, I just want to make the point that not all people who say they are Christians actually are. But at the same time I don't deny that real Christians have made grievous mistakes in the past.
 
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ebia

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Ah, but we aren't talking about Human communication. We're talking about divine communication.
That's not an either/or. Scripture is human and divine by source, and in any case is to be understood by humans. Human communication is inherently imprecise, ambiguous, formed according to what it is trying to communicate not peripheral details, etc.
 
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drich0150

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The Bible is meant to be for everyone.

Originally no it was not. Historically scripture and holy texts were reserved only for the High priests and a select number of scribes. Even after what we know to be the NT was written it was divided among a very select group of people, and was written (most of the time) in the form of a letter. It wasn't till much later that it was complied into one signal book known as the bible, and even then it was reserved for church officials. It wasn't till the printing press that the bible was made public just a few hundred years ago.

Isn't it reasonable that it could be understood by everyone? Why then would it require a knowledge about ancient customs etc? That makes it sound like the Bible is just a bunch of stories from ancient times.
The reason it was not originally meant to be a book for the masses was because of the expense to reproduce, the low literacy rate, and the idea that if scripture was kept in the church then in addition to what was written the oral traditions/customs would also be passed down. even well after the bible went into print there was much debate as to whether it should be recalled or not, because people simply did not have the context or inclination to fully comprehend what was and why things were written. It seemed to do more harm than good. (many divisions in the church)

I don't see that they are doing this. Both are describing the same thing - the death of Judas.
In both accounts Judas is dead, but at the same time both accounts describe two very different scenes. Now unless you are arguing that Judas did not die, or that He did not kill himself, that the potters field that he died in was not purchased with the blood money of Jesus.. then one must conclude that these two seeming separate accounts do indeed describe the same event, with time being the only variable. So, one account describes how He took his own life, and the other describes how he was found and why no one came to bury him.

What is you explanation of the two accounts? Are you saying that Judas didn't die and that the disciples were hiding him, but didn't bother to get their cover story straight before they wrote down their version of events??? Or changed the accounts when they were confronted? Do you believe that you are the first to point out this discrepancy? Do you believe that no one in the first century would have asked? If there was an issue why do you think no one changed it?

My only though was because to them the Judas story comes in 2 parts how he died and how He was found. If this were a simple story written by man for man, then why not simplify things?

Why are there so many loose ends? Why can a simple man read this book from cover to cover and fully comprehend all of this stories and precepts? Why does comprehension of this collection of books and letters require more, than what a casual reader can ever hope to bring to the table? Why does this book show signs of marketing or attainability for the readers? Why is the only thing this book has to offer given away for free?


If it was inspired by God, why would he do that at all? If it was divinely inspired, wouldn't it have no need for a human writer to try and figure out what things would be like? The only reason that makes sense is if the Bible is just a collection of stories written by people.

Only in your version of how things should be, that the human writer needs to figure out how things will be.. As things were written the writers simply recorded what they witnessed to the best of their ability, and then it was left for those who want to know God, to Ask, Seek and knock for Him. If you don't work, you don't eat. This is a proverb that covers both the physical and spiritual needs of any given person.

And my point is that it was God speaking directly to Moses - there was no messenger at all!
I am fully aware of your point. Although it seems you have missed mine:

Where does scripture say that there was no messenger? At the Same time it does say in Ex 3 that there was a messenger... So Again (hopefully for the last time) If a messenger gives you a message it is not he who is speaking, but the one who sent Him. This is true in our lives why can not this something be true for God?

Now because this is true in our lives as well with God, it was/is correct to say that God spoke to moses through a burning bush... (Even if He used an Angel)

Who was the messenger then? The bush perhaps?
Lets look at Exodus 3:

2 There the angel of the LORD appeared to him in flames of fire from within a bush. Moses saw that though the bush was on fire it did not burn up. 3 So Moses thought, "I will go over and see this strange sight—why the bush does not burn up."

4 When the LORD saw that he had gone over to look, God called to him from within the bush, "Moses! Moses!"
And Moses said, "Here I am."
5 "Do not come any closer," God said. "Take off your sandals, for the place where you are standing is holy ground." 6 Then he said, "I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob." At this, Moses hid his face, because he was afraid to look at God.

Again look at verse 2 An Angel of the Lord appeared to him (moses) in flames of fire from with in a bush...

Them Look again at verse 4-6: 4 When the LORD saw that he had gone over to look, God called to him from within the bush, "Moses! Moses!"
And Moses said, "Here I am."

5 "Do not come any closer," God said. "Take off your sandals, for the place where you are standing is holy ground." 6 Then he said, "I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob." At this, Moses hid his face, because he was afraid to look at God.

Now Scripture does not say where God spoke with His own voice or through the voice of the angel in flames, but one thing is clear, the words spoken belonged to God.


Or God could have written the book so it could be read and understood without the need for knowledge about the ancient world.
Again to whom would this book be written? (Given your recent education of the History of the bible) Who could understand it except these last few generations? what if God had planned for another 2000 years before his return? What of all of those who are to come after us? How will they be included in the writing of your version of the bible? Or should scripture be written directly to them? If so how will we and those that have come before us hope understand what was written to those who will be born 4000 years after Christ?

Again it is easier for those who truly want to know God to look back and understand, than it would be for us to look forward and comprehend.

The rest of your post doesn't discuss the topic.
It does indeed. If you compare what i wrote in that post and what i just wrote in the last paragraph you will see that all I did was I condensed and reworded all that you did not wish to acknowledge. I guess you were just not ready to hear what i had to say yet.
 
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ebia

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And how does one tell which part is which?
Same way you decide the genre of any other text - you read it and compare it with other similar texts.

The Bible is mneant to be for everyone.
Yes and no. It's meant to be a lifelong source for involving one's self in the story as part of a community doing the same. Not an "Idiot's guide to salvation" to go off into a corner somewhere with and come out knowing all you need to know.

The bible is public - it was always written for the whole community to share - but of course that would be primarily through hearing it read in meetings in an illiterate society, not private study. Christianity has always eschewed secret knowledge but the bible is designed for community engagement primarily and individual engagement only secondarily.


Isn't it reasonable that it could be understood by everyone?
Why is necessary to suppose that what the bible is there to teach is so simplistic and propositional as to lend itself to that sort of document?


Why then would it require a knowledge about ancient customs etc? That makes it sound like the Bible is just a bunch of stories from ancient times.
The bible is a bunch of stories from ancient times. Our job is to make it our story and improvise the next bit of that story in continuity with what has gone before.

In other words, the fact that the Bible is not obvious in its meaning is evidence to me that it was not inspired by God, and thus is not infallible.
Anyone who can read competently can pick up a bible and read some of it and get something out of it, but its a book to apply all our talents, reason, mediation and imagination to without exhausting it. And, while reading it in private is important, reading it and studying it in community is essential - Christianity is not an individualistic religion.

 
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Tiberius

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For the most part it's self-evidential. Is there a particular part of the Bible that you think is difficult to categorise?

What part of Gen 1 tells you that it is poetry? If you read that chapter by itself, would you be able to tell?

That's not an either/or. Scripture is human and divine by source, and in any case is to be understood by humans. Human communication is inherently imprecise, ambiguous, formed according to what it is trying to communicate not peripheral details, etc.

But the instant that fallible humans have a part in creating it, the Bible can't be presented as infallible.

Originally no it was not. Historically scripture and holy texts were reserved only for the High priests and a select number of scribes. Even after what we know to be the NT was written it was divided among a very select group of people, and was written (most of the time) in the form of a letter. It wasn't till much later that it was complied into one signal book known as the bible, and even then it was reserved for church officials. It wasn't till the printing press that the bible was made public just a few hundred years ago.

The Bible is presented today as the Good News about eternal salvation for all of God's people. Didn't God mean it for everyone, even if the early church people were being idiots about it?

The reason it was not originally meant to be a book for the masses was because of the expense to reproduce, the low literacy rate, and the idea that if scripture was kept in the church then in addition to what was written the oral traditions/customs would also be passed down. even well after the bible went into print there was much debate as to whether it should be recalled or not, because people simply did not have the context or inclination to fully comprehend what was and why things were written. It seemed to do more harm than good. (many divisions in the church)

There were also efforts to make sure that the common folk couldn't read it, even if they got their hands on it. This was done so that the power of what the people believed was held in the hands of the priests.

In both accounts Judas is dead, but at the same time both accounts describe two very different scenes. Now unless you are arguing that Judas did not die, or that He did not kill himself, that the potters field that he died in was not purchased with the blood money of Jesus.. then one must conclude that these two seeming separate accounts do indeed describe the same event, with time being the only variable. So, one account describes how He took his own life, and the other describes how he was found and why no one came to bury him.

I am saying that if there are two accounts that explain how Judas died, they should at least be similar. However, if you look at one of the accounts, it contains not a single detail that is found in the other - except for the fact that he dies.

What is you explanation of the two accounts? Are you saying that Judas didn't die and that the disciples were hiding him, but didn't bother to get their cover story straight before they wrote down their version of events??? Or changed the accounts when they were confronted? Do you believe that you are the first to point out this discrepancy? Do you believe that no one in the first century would have asked? If there was an issue why do you think no one changed it?

Given that there is evidence that the Gospels weren't written until several decades after the events they describe, I'd say that the two accounts were written by two different people who knew only that Judas died.

My only though was because to them the Judas story comes in 2 parts how he died and how He was found. If this were a simple story written by man for man, then why not simplify things?

Because it is not clear from the account in Acts that Peter is describing a metaphorical account of how Judas was found rather than a literal account of how he died.

Why are there so many loose ends? Why can a simple man read this book from cover to cover and fully comprehend all of this stories and precepts? Why does comprehension of this collection of books and letters require more, than what a casual reader can ever hope to bring to the table? Why does this book show signs of marketing or attainability for the readers? Why is the only thing this book has to offer given away for free?

You seem to be contradicting yourself. You ask why it's simple enough for a simple man to read it and comprehend it, but then you ask why it requires more than a casual reader can bring to the table.

Is it simple enough for a simple man or does it require more than a casual reader can bring to the table?

Only in your version of how things should be, that the human writer needs to figure out how things will be.. As things were written the writers simply recorded what they witnessed to the best of their ability, and then it was left for those who want to know God, to Ask, Seek and knock for Him. If you don't work, you don't eat. This is a proverb that covers both the physical and spiritual needs of any given person.

In that case, it is perfectly reasonable for the Bible to contain contradictions and inconsistancies.

I am fully aware of your point. Although it seems you have missed mine:

Where does scripture say that there was no messenger? At the Same time it does say in Ex 3 that there was a messenger... So Again (hopefully for the last time) If a messenger gives you a message it is not he who is speaking, but the one who sent Him. This is true in our lives why can not this something be true for God?

Okay, point conceded. Serves me right for looking up a list of contradictions and not checking each one I used. :p
Again to whom would this book be written? (Given your recent education of the History of the bible) Who could understand it except these last few generations? what if God had planned for another 2000 years before his return? What of all of those who are to come after us? How will they be included in the writing of your version of the bible? Or should scripture be written directly to them? If so how will we and those that have come before us hope understand what was written to those who will be born 4000 years after Christ?

Again it is easier for those who truly want to know God to look back and understand, than it would be for us to look forward and comprehend./QUOTE]

An omnipotent God could make sure that the Bible was written in a way that could be clearly understood by people of any age. Instead, it is written in a way so that much meaning is lost unless the reader has knowledge about slang of the time and other such things.

The best way to eliminate contradictions in the Bible is to stop interpreting it literally. There are too many allegories which must be interpreted metaphorically.

The trouble with that is that we need tgwo things which the Bible doesn't provide. We need a way to determine which bits are literal and which are metaphorical, and we need a way to determine the correct way to interpret them

Don't try to see contradiction in what perhaps never happened. The episode of Judas' betrayal could have been an interpolation with the purpose to add one more prophecy to Jesus as Messiah, from the betrayal of Joseph by his brothers.

You mean that bits of the Bible were added in order to provide prophecies that could be claimed to have been fulfilled?

Add a prophecy that never happened just to say, "See? It happened, so the Bible must be true?"

Does it matter? The whole account of Creation in Genesis is allegorical. It can't be interpreted literally.

The whole Adam and Eve is metaphorical?

God is not like a man to have a face to be seen. God is Incorporeal. There is no face in incorporeality.

It says Moses saw him face to face.

Neither. That was a dream/vision Moses had. He had come from the field with the sheep, watered them, and sat down to rest. Thinking about his brothers back in Egypt, he must have slumbered and had a dream/vision about God's voice from the noise of the burning bush, and conceived the divine message to return to Egypt and try to save his brohers from captivity. Everything is possible during a dream or vision, even to see God and live.

I haven't heard that interpretation before...

Same way you decide the genre of any other text - you read it and compare it with other similar texts.

What if there are no other texts that discuss the same things?

Yes and no. It's meant to be a lifelong source for involving one's self in the story as part of a community doing the same. Not an "Idiot's guide to salvation" to go off into a corner somewhere with and come out knowing all you need to know
.

Then it isn't a factual history?

The bible is public - it was always written for the whole community to share - but of course that would be primarily through hearing it read in meetings in an illiterate society, not private study. Christianity has always eschewed secret knowledge but the bible is designed for community engagement primarily and individual engagement only secondarily.

The early history of the Bible doesn't fit this idea.

Why is necessary to suppose that what the bible is there to teach is so simplistic and propositional as to lend itself to that sort of document?

If it is complex, then it automatically excludes those not smart enough to interpret - in contradiction to your claim that it was written for the whole community to share.

The bible is a bunch of stories from ancient times. Our job is to make it our story and improvise the next bit of that story in continuity with what has gone before.

Improvise? That's no way to find truth!

Anyone who can read competently can pick up a bible and read some of it and get something out of it, but its a book to apply all our talents, reason, mediation and imagination to without exhausting it. And, while reading it in private is important, reading it and studying it in community is essential - Christianity is not an individualistic religion.

Jesus himself said, "When thou prayest, enter into thy closet, and when thou hast shut thy door, pray to thy Father which is in secret; and thy Father which seeth in secret shall reward thee openly." Not disagreeing with you, just saying, is all.
 
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ebia

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What part of Gen 1 tells you that it is poetry? If you read that chapter by itself, would you be able to tell?
Go read it aloud - it's quite blatantly highly structured poetry (almost certainly written for liturgical purposes). Short of saying "this is poetry" at the top it could hardly be more obvious!



But the instant that fallible humans have a part in creating it, the Bible can't be presented as infallible.
1. says who, since God is also involved in inspiring it?
2. I don't personally think "infallible" is actually a very meaningful category. The correct category is reliable (for purpose).As per the letter to Timothy.

There were also efforts to make sure that the common folk couldn't read it, even if they got their hands on it. This was done so that the power of what the people believed was held in the hands of the priests.
That did happen, particulary in Western Europe, but it was a relatively late phenomenon (and thankfully one that every church as completely got over).

An omnipotent God could make sure that the Bible was written in a way that could be clearly understood by people of any age.
If the message you want to communicate reduces to something that trivial, and you are trying to produce a book to be read by individuals in isolation, perhaps. But given how significant culture is in the way we read things, if that is possible at all it is only possible for extraordinarly trivial ideas.

You also presuppose that God should work in the way you want, and that learning reduces to the trasmission of simple, easy to understand, facts, neither of which is true.

The trouble with that is that we need tgwo things which the Bible doesn't provide. We need a way to determine which bits are literal and which are metaphorical, and we need a way to determine the correct way to interpret them
All texts - indeed all human communication - is a complex mix of metaphorical and literal happening at different levels. The only way you avoid this is to avoid language altogether.


The whole Adam and Eve is metaphorical?
It's mythological. You can't reduce any non-trivial text to "entirely metaphorical" or "entirely literal".

What if there are no other texts that discuss the same things?
There's pretty much always other similar styled texts discussing similar things and other clues we can use. Scripture is no different from any other text on that score - you have to bring some other information (like what the words mean) in order to read any text.

Then it isn't a factual history?
Some of scripture is recounting historical events. (But even when recounting historical events the meaning the author wishes to give those events shapes the way they tell the story. Again, that's true of all accounts of events. Almost nobody sets out to write about events simply to convey meaningless facts).


The early history of the Bible doesn't fit this idea.
Yes it does - the New Testament was written for reading aloud in congregations. The bulk of it is addressed to congregations directly or implicitly and that is always how it has been used. At one point one letter even says as much directly. Mainstream Christianity has never been into secret knowledge, and that was one of the big complaints it could level at Gnostism.


If it is complex, then it automatically excludes those not smart enough to interpret - in contradiction to your claim that it was written for the whole community to share.
It includes everybody at their level within a community and takes them further. The object of the exercise isn't to get every individual to learn 7 (or whatever) facts, but to enable communities to become places where the Kingdom of God is anticipated. Christianity is the follow-on from Israel - it works first and formost at the level of "People of God" and individuals only within that; and what it is trying to achieve is primarily (appropriate) growth, not getting each individual over a pass/fail benchmark.



Improvise? That's no way to find truth!
Says who? What its about is an ongoing story of something being achieved, not simply the transmission of some propositional statements.

The idea of scripture is not for individuals to learn some facts that enable them to go to heaven when they die, but to from the People of God who continue the story of scripture into the future and thereby are part of its eventual coming to completion when heaven comes to earth.

Jesus himself said, "When thou prayest, enter into thy closet, and when thou hast shut thy door, pray to thy Father which is in secret; and thy Father which seeth in secret shall reward thee openly." Not disagreeing with you, just saying, is all.
That's got absolutely nothing to do with the point being made.
 
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JasperJackson

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What part of Gen 1 tells you that it is poetry? If you read that chapter by itself, would you be able to tell?
Yeah, its just what I mentioned before about the repetitiveness. Each day ends the same: "the evening, the morning, the n-th day"
 
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Tiberius

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Go read it aloud - it's quite blatantly highly structured poetry (almost certainly written for liturgical purposes). Short of saying "this is poetry" at the top it could hardly be more obvious!

Let's hope that everyone who has ever tranmslated the Bible has been able to tell as well. I mean, given how many time the Bible has been translated, and the translations translated again....

1. says who, since God is also involved in inspiring it?

Then God is coming back and correct any mistakes that the people make?

2. I don't personally think "infallible" is actually a very meaningful category. The correct category is reliable (for purpose).As per the letter to Timothy.

Using the Bible to support the Bible? I'm sorry, I won't accept using a source to support that same source.

That did happen, particulary in Western Europe, but it was a relatively late phenomenon (and thankfully one that every church as completely got over).

Not from what I have read.

If the message you want to communicate reduces to something that trivial, and you are trying to produce a book to be read by individuals in isolation, perhaps. But given how significant culture is in the way we read things, if that is possible at all it is only possible for extraordinarly trivial ideas.

We are talking about a God who can do anything. Couldn't he have the Bible say, "The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog" over and over and still have ghis message get through to anyone who reads it?

You also presuppose that God should work in the way you want, and that learning reduces to the trasmission of simple, easy to understand, facts, neither of which is true.

Perhaps, but as it is, the Bible has the look of a book that was just written by people with no God involved at all.

All texts - indeed all human communication - is a complex mix of metaphorical and literal happening at different levels. The only way you avoid this is to avoid language altogether.

It is perfectly possible to write without metaphor. I'm a writer myself. Many textbooks are written without metaphor.

It's mythological. You can't reduce any non-trivial text to "entirely metaphorical" or "entirely literal".

Myth is no way to determine truth.

There's pretty much always other similar styled texts discussing similar things and other clues we can use. Scripture is no different from any other text on that score - you have to bring some other information (like what the words mean) in order to read any text.

Wouldn't that only work if you work from the original versions?

Some of scripture is recounting historical events. (But even when recounting historical events the meaning the author wishes to give those events shapes the way they tell the story. Again, that's true of all accounts of events. Almost nobody sets out to write about events simply to convey meaningless facts).

But the bits that talk about stuff that actually happened have been translated (so we miss out on the nuances of the original language), and these texts are written using techniques such as poetry and metaphor to begin with.

So how can we be sure that we are getting anything even close to what was originally meant?

Yes it does - the New Testament was written for reading aloud in congregations. The bulk of it is addressed to congregations directly or implicitly and that is always how it has been used. At one point one letter even says as much directly. Mainstream Christianity has never been into secret knowledge, and that was one of the big complaints it could level at Gnostism.

Again, not from what I have read.

It includes everybody at their level within a community and takes them further. The object of the exercise isn't to get every individual to learn 7 (or whatever) facts, but to enable communities to become places where the Kingdom of God is anticipated. Christianity is the follow-on from Israel - it works first and formost at the level of "People of God" and individuals only within that; and what it is trying to achieve is primarily (appropriate) growth, not getting each individual over a pass/fail benchmark.

At their level? Whose level? The simple people? The casual readers? Anyway, I think this is starting to get off topic.

Says who? What its about is an ongoing story of something being achieved, not simply the transmission of some propositional statements.

You actually think that improvising will get you the truth about what happened long ago? Did you do the same thing in high school history class? Improvising is making it up as you go (albeit using certain guidelines). But it can NEVER be a reliable method of reconstructing the past.

The idea of scripture is not for individuals to learn some facts that enable them to go to heaven when they die, but to from the People of God who continue the story of scripture into the future and thereby are part of its eventual coming to completion when heaven comes to earth.

Huh? I am asking whether the events in the Bible actually happened, and if they did, why do the texts of the Bible have so many inconsistancies. You seem to be presenting the Bible as something akin to Aesop's Fables. Get the messages from it and that's the important thing.

Yeah, its just what I mentioned before about the repetitiveness. Each day ends the same: "the evening, the morning, the n-th day"

That doesn't explain why there are glaring differences between Gen 1 and Gen2.
 
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ebia

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Let's hope that everyone who has ever tranmslated the Bible has been able to tell as well. I mean, given how many time the Bible has been translated, and the translations translated again....
The chinese whispers idea of translation is something of a myth. All significant modern translations go back to the original languages. In the case of Genesis 1 its structure and rhythm is so obvious you'd have to be an exceedingly poor translator not to recognise it.



Then God is coming back and correct any mistakes that the people make?
You are still thinking of God and people as an either/or, not a both/and. That's not surprising - the western world has been thinking that way since the seventeenth century - but unless you get your head around it being a both/and you are nowhere near historic Judeo/Christian thinking.

Using the Bible to support the Bible? I'm sorry, I won't accept using a source to support that same source.
I wasn't using Timothy to support the truth of the assertion, but to show more correctly what the assertion should be. "Infallibility" is a relatively modern, and IMO fairly meaningless, concept. The historic concept is reliability for purpose - so that's the standard the bible should be measure against to see if it measures up or not.


Not from what I have read.
Then I can only suggest you aren't reading good sources.



We are talking about a God who can do anything. Couldn't he have the Bible say, "The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog" over and over and still have ghis message get through to anyone who reads it?
Could God create a square circle?



Perhaps, but as it is, the Bible has the look of a book that was just written by people with no God involved at all.
I suggest that's because you have the wrong view of what it should look like if God was involved as well as people.



It is perfectly possible to write without metaphor. I'm a writer myself. Many textbooks are written without metaphor.
All language is, to some extent, metaphoric. I can provide citations for that from people who study the relationship between language, symbol, metaphor and myth if you want.



Myth is no way to determine truth.
Myth is a superb medium for teaching truth. We just happen to have grown up in a highly unusual culture that has grossly devalued the effectivness of narrative in teaching, treating it as something suitable only for young children.
Wouldn't that only work if you work from the original versions?
Not entirely, no.


But the bits that talk about stuff that actually happened have been translated (so we miss out on the nuances of the original language), and these texts are written using techniques such as poetry and metaphor to begin with.
Of course working in secondary languages looses some nuances. So does hearing/reading a text starting from a different culture and all the other presuppositions. But the thing is robust enough that we can do a reasonable job - particularly if we are in a community that has access to wider skills in the original languages, in historical understanding, etc.

So how can we be sure that we are getting anything even close to what was originally meant?
Because we aren't working alone.



Again, not from what I have read.
I don't know what you've been reading. Go read Paul's epistles - all the major ones are addressed and written to congregations. Read the end of Colossians that talks about "when this letter has been read among you, have it read also in the church of Laodicia, and see also that you read the letter [from/to] Laodicea [probably Ephesians]" Go read some good early church history. The whole idea of canon - the list of books - was to settle which books should be read in worship. Go read some of the early church apologetic against the gnostics. Go read some mainstream scholarship on how Mark or Luke's gospel works.


At their level? Whose level? The simple people? The casual readers? Anyway, I think this is starting to get off topic.
One of the beauties of narrative is that it can work on lots of levels at the same time.



You actually think that improvising will get you the truth about what happened long ago?
That's not what I said. The goal however, is not "getting at the [facts] about what happened long ago", the goal is carrying on the story. Understanding the previous story is important to do that, but is not the end in itself.


Huh? I am asking whether the events in the Bible actually happened, and if they did, why do the texts of the Bible have so many inconsistancies.
Some of the "events" in the bible are describing things that happened, some are not. But any account of things that happened is not a straightforward list of the facts in chronological order - when people tell of events that happened they shape the way they tell it according to what they aim to do in their telling. That's true even in our culture that values facts above meaning, but is even more so in a culture that places a higher value on meaning and a lower value on factual precision.

So if we take the resurrection stories, say (where we have at least 5 independent accounts) there are discrepencies because each author is interested in bringing out different things in what happened. That isn't an indicator that nothing happened - its exactly what we would expect if the accounts are independent. If you collect 5 eyewitness accounts of a single event you expect discrepancies - if you don't find that you strongly suspect collaboration.

You seem to be presenting the Bible as something akin to Aesop's Fables. Get the messages from it and that's the important thing.
To some extent that's true, and yet to some extent the message is dependent upon at least some things having actually happened. If Jesus' didn't rise form the dead the message "Jesus rising from the dead establishes him as Lord and anticipates our rising from the dead" vapourises somewhat. But it's not dependent upon our being able to reconstuct the precise chronological events of Easter morning - that's not what any of the Gospel authors are trying to do.

That doesn't explain why there are glaring differences between Gen 1 and Gen2.
They are two different creation myths written at different times by different people to teach different truths (or aspects of the same truth, depending how you want to phrase it). Neither is intended to be a set of facts of about what actually happened but both are profoundly true - amongst the truest texts ever written.
 
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Same way you decide the genre of any other text - you read it and compare it with other similar texts.
Yes and no. It's meant to be a lifelong source for involving one's self in the story as part of a community doing the same. Not an "Idiot's guide to salvation" to go off into a corner somewhere with and come out knowing all you need to know.

The bible is public - it was always written for the whole community to share - but of course that would be primarily through hearing it read in meetings in an illiterate society, not private study. Christianity has always eschewed secret knowledge but the bible is designed for community engagement primarily and individual engagement only secondarily.



Why is necessary to suppose that what the bible is there to teach is so simplistic and propositional as to lend itself to that sort of document?



The bible is a bunch of stories from ancient times. Our job is to make it our story and improvise the next bit of that story in continuity with what has gone before.


Anyone who can read competently can pick up a bible and read some of it and get something out of it, but its a book to apply all our talents, reason, mediation and imagination to without exhausting it. And, while reading it in private is important, reading it and studying it in community is essential - Christianity is not an individualistic religion.

------------------------

I can't agree with you Ebia. The Bible was written for the Jews. Until the New Covenant was established, as the Jews had returned from captivity in
Babylon, the Bible was taught to the Jews by Levites, Scribes and Prophets. (Jer. 31:34) From then on, the Jews need no one to teach them about the Lord. The Bible has become available to all as if it is written within our own hearts. The Bible is no longer that mysterious and remote-from-us book as it used to be. It is not up in the sky that we should say, "who will go up in the sky to get it for us and tell us of it, that we may carry it out?" Nor it is accross the sea, that we should say, "who will cross the sea to get it for us and tell us of it, that we may carry it out?" No, it is now something very near to us, already in our mouths, and in our own hearts; we have only to carry it out. (Deut. 30:11-14)

Before you raise your voice against my saying that the Bible was written for the Jews, read Psalm 147:19,20. "The Word of God was given to Israel only and to no other people on earth." True that it is available to all Mankind, but through the Jewish People. If you read Isaiah 2:2,3, you will see that when Gentiles want instructions in the Word of God, the address must be Zion or Jerusalem, the Jewish People. You are right when you say that "anyone who can read competently, can pick up a Bible and read it."
Yes, but Jewishly-oriented, according to Isaiah 2:2,3.
Ben
 
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I can't agree with you Ebia. [...]
I'm not sure why you think what you've posted contradicts anything I've posted. But either way you need to read the forum-specific rules for Exploring Christianity.

  • Only Non-Christians are allowed to start threads.
  • Only Christians are allowed to respond in those threads, and they must respond to the openning poster, discuss with each other.
  • The only non-Christian who may post in a thread is the openning poster.
(my summary)
 
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Tiberius

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Judas hanged himself and someone probably took him down or the rope snapped.

Speculation.

Genesis 2 is more relative to humanity and is from a different perspective. That is why the creation account seems different from Genesis 1. Chronologically, the animals were created before Adam (Genesis 1:20-25).

Gen 2 is quite clear in saying that the animals were created after Adam.

Man has seen theophanies of God. In other words, visible manifestations of God in the likeness of an angel or a man.

No man has seen God's glory face to face.

I can't find where this is specified.

Exodus 33:20 But He said, “You cannot see My face; for no man shall see Me, and live.”

John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time.

Exodus 33:11 And the LORD spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend.

I don't see why the word "face" is not literal when it says Moses saw God face to face, but it refers to something different when it says that no man can see God's face and live.

The chinese whispers idea of translation is something of a myth. All significant modern translations go back to the original languages. In the case of Genesis 1 its structure and rhythm is so obvious you'd have to be an exceedingly poor translator not to recognise it.

How could the existence of literalists be explained then? People who think that Gen 1 is a literal account? Why don't they think that gen 1 is just a poem?

I mean, just look at the second thing I quoted in this very post, by Jpark. He certainly takes gen 1 to be a literal, non-metaphorical account!

You are still thinking of God and people as an either/or, not a both/and. That's not surprising - the western world has been thinking that way since the seventeenth century - but unless you get your head around it being a both/and you are nowhere near historic Judeo/Christian thinking.

Could you explain this? I'd need more than an abstract notion to change how I think.

I wasn't using Timothy to support the truth of the assertion, but to show more correctly what the assertion should be. "Infallibility" is a relatively modern, and IMO fairly meaningless, concept. The historic concept is reliability for purpose - so that's the standard the bible should be measure against to see if it measures up or not.

In fallible is a recent notion? I don't get this. People didn't care about the accuracy of the Bible until recently?

Either the Bible is free of mistakes or it is not. This is not a modern idea. It isn't an idea at all. It is a fact. It must have either zero mistakes or it must have one or more mistakes.

Could God create a square circle?

Why couldn't he? He is all-powerful, isn't he?

I suggest that's because you have the wrong view of what it should look like if God was involved as well as people.

Perhaps, but I have a very good view of what books look like when only people write them, and the Bible fits it really well.

All language is, to some extent, metaphoric. I can provide citations for that from people who study the relationship between language, symbol, metaphor and myth if you want.

I'm talking about the level of metaphor found in the Bible.

Myth is a superb medium for teaching truth. We just happen to have grown up in a highly unusual culture that has grossly devalued the effectivness of narrative in teaching, treating it as something suitable only for young children.

By that logic, Aesop's Fables are just as truthful.

Not entirely, no.

Huh? If you aren't working from the originals, how can you be sure that there haven't been any alterations made?

Of course working in secondary languages looses some nuances. So does hearing/reading a text starting from a different culture and all the other presuppositions. But the thing is robust enough that we can do a reasonable job - particularly if we are in a community that has access to wider skills in the original languages, in historical understanding, etc.

And how does one test this?

Because we aren't working alone.

You can't expect me to assume God in order to trust the Bible and thus prove that there is a God.

When the conclusion is used as one of the premises as well, it's just circular logic.

One of the beauties of narrative is that it can work on lots of levels at the same time.

The fact remains that many people today find the bible very much unreadable.

That's not what I said. The goal however, is not "getting at the [facts] about what happened long ago", the goal is carrying on the story. Understanding the previous story is important to do that, but is not the end in itself.

I think knowing the actual events is pretty important.

Some of the "events" in the bible are describing things that happened, some are not. But any account of things that happened is not a straightforward list of the facts in chronological order - when people tell of events that happened they shape the way they tell it according to what they aim to do in their telling. That's true even in our culture that values facts above meaning, but is even more so in a culture that places a higher value on meaning and a lower value on factual precision.

So how do we determine which parts are which? When Jesus cursed the fig tree for not bearing fruit (even though it wasn't the season!), is that bit literal or metaphorical? How can you tell?

So if we take the resurrection stories, say (where we have at least 5 independent accounts) there are discrepencies because each author is interested in bringing out different things in what happened. That isn't an indicator that nothing happened - its exactly what we would expect if the accounts are independent. If you collect 5 eyewitness accounts of a single event you expect discrepancies - if you don't find that you strongly suspect collaboration.

I'm sorry, but the claim that there are differences because the different authors were concentrating on different things makes no sense to me.

I mean, you have one account saying one thing, and the next account saying something that can't be true if the first account is also true.

The only way around it is to say that the stories they are telling are just metaphor and not literal accounts.

To some extent that's true, and yet to some extent the message is dependent upon at least some things having actually happened. If Jesus' didn't rise form the dead the message "Jesus rising from the dead establishes him as Lord and anticipates our rising from the dead" vapourises somewhat. But it's not dependent upon our being able to reconstuct the precise chronological events of Easter morning - that's not what any of the Gospel authors are trying to do.

I am suspicious of a book which claims to present the truth and yet offers no testable claims at all.

The Bible is un falsifiable - any apparent inconsistancies can be explained away by saying, "Oh, but it's not this," or "It's not that." And yet, that is exactly what has been presented in this thread as justification that the bible is infallible.

They are two different creation myths written at different times by different people to teach different truths (or aspects of the same truth, depending how you want to phrase it). Neither is intended to be a set of facts of about what actually happened but both are profoundly true - amongst the truest texts ever written.

Then they are just as true as Aesop's fables. And there are a lot of people who disagree with you and think that the Gen 1 and 2 accounts are intended literally.
 
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I'm not sure why you think what you've posted contradicts anything I've posted. But either way you need to read the forum-specific rules for Exploring Christianity.

  • Only Non-Christians are allowed to start threads.
  • Only Christians are allowed to respond in those threads, and they must respond to the openning poster, discuss with each other.
  • The only non-Christian who may post in a thread is the openning poster.
(my summary)
----------------

Thank you for letting me know that, as a non-Christian, I am allowed to start a thread. Does the second point mean I am not allowed to post a reply to your answer to my thread? It doesn't make sense to me. Do you mind clarifying it for me?
Ben
 
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ebia

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How could the existence of literalists be explained then? People who think that Gen 1 is a literal account? Why don't they think that gen 1 is just a poem?
Many of them recognise it's poetic in structure, they just think its still literal.

Could you explain this? I'd need more than an abstract notion to change how I think.
The Jewish tradition, continued in Christianity, has never seen "I can explain this in other terms" as ruling out God; that's really a seventeenth century notion. Judeo/Christianity as always seen God as working through natural processes, normal human behaviour, etc, just as much as through the exceptional stuff. If I have a friend who is ill, and he gets better, one still attributes that to God even though we can explain the mechanism by which his body and/or medical science fixed up the issue. When Isaiah spoke of God using King Cyrus to execute judgement on Israel, or when Jesus hinted at Rome doing similar, that doesn't displace the normal human motivations going on in the head of Cyrus or the Roman Emperor.



In fallible is a recent notion? I don't get this. People didn't care about the accuracy of the Bible until recently?
They didn't talk about it on those terms until now. An obsession with facts over meaning is relatively modern, and formulaic labels like infallible and inerrant are relatively modern terms. Previously people were interested in the reliablility of the bible, but didn't express that in the same ways.

Either the Bible is free of mistakes or it is not. This is not a modern idea. It isn't an idea at all. It is a fact. It must have either zero mistakes or it must have one or more mistakes.
What counts as a mistake depends on what the intention of the text is. If a text claims to get all the architectural details correct (as the front page of the DaVinci Code does, for example) and then getting the architectural details of Westminster Abbey grossly wrong (as the book does) could reasonably be called a mistake. But without that claim and read as fiction Dan Brown would be under no obligation to get that right. A text is only obliged to accurate on the things it is trying to talk about, not on the medium. So, for example, John isn't interested in telling us exactly which women were at the tomb on easter morning, but he is very interested in telling us this is the New Exodus so the only woman he mentions is Mary (Miriam) Magdalene.


Why couldn't he? He is all-powerful, isn't he?
That kind of naive thinking about infinity is always self-contradictory.


Perhaps, but I have a very good view of what books look like when only people write them, and the Bible fits it really well.
If all the books you have looked at have been written by people, and you don't know what one would look like if God had also been involved, that doesn't sound like a very scientific assessment to me.

I'm talking about the level of metaphor found in the Bible.
I know, we drifted a bit. But the point was that metaphor and literal are not black-and-white categories that we can place a text in one or the other, but texts usually have both going on at various different levels simultaneously. So that saying "is this text literal or metaphoric" often becomes an exercise in forcing simple boolean answers to questions that demand much more complex nuance.


By that logic, Aesop's Fables are just as truthful.
A fable could be truthful. Whether Aesop's are is something I'll leave you to judge. I would say there is a good deal of truth to, say, the Illiad because what it has to say about the tragedy of war is something few, if any, other texts say half as well. The ability for myth to be truthful is not confined to the biblical texts - rather I would say some of the Genesis texts are the perfect example of the genre. On the other hand there are some other myths that I would say are decided untrue, not because they aren't history but because the messages they are designed to teach are profoundly un-true.

Huh? If you aren't working from the originals, how can you be sure that there haven't been any alterations made?
There are enough independent translations out there, and footnotes, commentaries, dictionaries and other tools to be able to do a good deal without being able to read greek, to have a high degree of confidence in the translated text. No translation is perfect, but we work with good-but-not-quite-perfect tools all the time. Yes, it's better to work in the original languages if you have the tools to do that, but one can do a very good job without.

And how does one test this?
By checking against what other people are coming up with when they come at the text from other starting-points and directions. By reading the work of scholars who are in-touch with the original languages and do study the cultures in which texts were produced, etc. And by doing so within a community doing the same so our learning bounces of each other.


You can't expect me to assume God in order to trust the Bible and thus prove that there is a God.
I don't expect you to assume anything. When I said "we aren't working alone" I was referring to the fact that we are working in a community, not to the Holy Spirit.

The fact remains that many people today find the bible very much unreadable.
We are limited people. Any non-trivial text is harder for some people than others - though I would suggest that pretty much everybody who can read can get something out of it. But the goal isn't reading the bible, the goal is growing as christians within a People of God that is also growing.


I think knowing the actual events is pretty important.
To a degree that's your personal problem that you've acquired from your particular (and highly unusual) culture.

It's important that Jesus rose from the dead on Easter morning, it is not important that we can construct the precise chronology of who saw what that morning any more than its important that we know the colour of his underwear.


So how do we determine which parts are which? When Jesus cursed the fig tree for not bearing fruit (even though it wasn't the season!), is that bit literal or metaphorical?
Both.
How can you tell?
A little bit of understanding of parables, reading in context, and checking the different synoptics, quickly shows up that its an enacted parable of judgement on the Temple.

I'm sorry, but the claim that there are differences because the different authors were concentrating on different things makes no sense to me.
Why not. If a significant event happens, but you get 4 different witnesses to describe it, each of which has a slighly different take on its significance, you will get 4 different accounts. There are studies out there noting this - not least on Wittgenstein's Poker.
I mean, you have one account saying one thing, and the next account saying something that can't be true if the first account is also true.
Not all of the facts of all accounts may be exactly factual, but the four accounts may still all be true in the meaning they are giving. People don't tell accounts to get the facts perfect, they tell accounts to convey the meaning.

I am suspicious of a book which claims to present the truth and yet offers no testable claims at all.
That's a very different question to that which we have been discussing.

While by no means everything in scripture is testable, it offers far more that is open to investigation that most religions because it at least claims to have foundational events like the resurrection embedded in real history. At least in principle the tools of history can investigate whether Jesus rose from the dead - if you want to see what that looks like read Resurrection of the Son of God (N.T. Wright).


The Bible is un falsifiable - any apparent inconsistancies can be explained away by saying, "Oh, but it's not this," or "It's not that." And yet, that is exactly what has been presented in this thread as justification that the bible is infallible.
As I've said, I don't think "infallible" is a meaningful concept.



And there are a lot of people who disagree with you and think that the Gen 1 and 2 accounts are intended literally.
That's their problem, not mine.
 
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Thank you for letting me know that, as a non-Christian, I am allowed to start a thread. Does the second point mean I am not allowed to post a reply to your answer to my thread? It doesn't make sense to me. Do you mind clarifying it for me?
Ben
As a non-Christian you can carry on a conversation with Christians in your thread (so long as it doesn't reduce to debating - its supposed to be a conversation about questions you have). What you are not allowed to do is participate in any way in threads you did not start.
 
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Many of them recognise it's poetic in structure, they just think its still literal.

Ah.

Now, I asked why there are inconsistancies between the two accounts. You explained to me that this is because Gen 1 is a poem, but now you are telling me that some people (a very large prpoportion, from what I have read) still consider Gen 1 to be literal. So it would seem that Gen 1 being a poem isn't the answer!

My question, then, would seem to remain unanswered. How can the inconsistancies between Gen 1 and 2 be explained? The fact that Gen 1 is a poem doesn't seem to bother a lot of people.

The Jewish tradition, continued in Christianity, has never seen "I can explain this in other terms" as ruling out God; that's really a seventeenth century notion. Judeo/Christianity as always seen God as working through natural processes, normal human behaviour, etc, just as much as through the exceptional stuff. If I have a friend who is ill, and he gets better, one still attributes that to God even though we can explain the mechanism by which his body and/or medical science fixed up the issue. When Isaiah spoke of God using King Cyrus to execute judgement on Israel, or when Jesus hinted at Rome doing similar, that doesn't displace the normal human motivations going on in the head of Cyrus or the Roman Emperor.

I'm sorry, I just follow occam's Razor. If a person is sick, receives medical treatment and then recovers, I praise those who I could see played a part. I'm not going to assume God played a part and then say, "God must have played a part, that proves God exists."

They didn't talk about it on those terms until now. An obsession with facts over meaning is relatively modern, and formulaic labels like infallible and inerrant are relatively modern terms. Previously people were interested in the reliablility of the bible, but didn't express that in the same ways.

I don't think it matters what terms they used.

What counts as a mistake depends on what the intention of the text is. If a text claims to get all the architectural details correct (as the front page of the DaVinci Code does, for example) and then getting the architectural details of Westminster Abbey grossly wrong (as the book does) could reasonably be called a mistake. But without that claim and read as fiction Dan Brown would be under no obligation to get that right. A text is only obliged to accurate on the things it is trying to talk about, not on the medium. So, for example, John isn't interested in telling us exactly which women were at the tomb on easter morning, but he is very interested in telling us this is the New Exodus so the only woman he mentions is Mary (Miriam) Magdalene.

But the fact remains that the accounts of the gospels say things that are directly contradicted by the accounts in the other gospels. Now, it doesn't matter if it is the Bible or the latest Dan Brown - if it contains such things, then I cannot accept it as a factual account.

That kind of naive thinking about infinity is always self-contradictory.

That doesn't tell me why God couldn't do it. All it does is tell me about the inherent problems with a being that is (supposedly) omnipotent - which is one of the reasons I am an atheist.

If all the books you have looked at have been written by people, and you don't know what one would look like if God had also been involved, that doesn't sound like a very scientific assessment to me.

I beg to differ.

Firstly, given that we have (supposedly) no other texts written with the aid of a God, we have no way of knopwing for sure what a text written with God would look like. So how can you say that the Bible displays such characteristics?

Secondly, the different books of the Bible are written in many different styles - implying that they were written by many different people without any creative input in common at all.

Thirdly, I am very familiar with works written solely by people, and the Bible fits the mold exactly.

I know, we drifted a bit. But the point was that metaphor and literal are not black-and-white categories that we can place a text in one or the other, but texts usually have both going on at various different levels simultaneously. So that saying "is this text literal or metaphoric" often becomes an exercise in forcing simple boolean answers to questions that demand much more complex nuance.

Honestly, I only care about the literal aspect. Did it actually happen?

if it didn't happen, then it is just a story. And while it may contain an important message, it's no more important than Aesop's Fables.

A fable could be truthful. Whether Aesop's are is something I'll leave you to judge. I would say there is a good deal of truth to, say, the Illiad because what it has to say about the tragedy of war is something few, if any, other texts say half as well. The ability for myth to be truthful is not confined to the biblical texts - rather I would say some of the Genesis texts are the perfect example of the genre. On the other hand there are some other myths that I would say are decided untrue, not because they aren't history but because the messages they are designed to teach are profoundly un-true.

When I speak of truth, I am talking about facts. Did it actually happen? I mean, by what you said just now, I could say that Harry Potter is true because it contains an important message about doing what is right and good, even though it may be hard.

There are enough independent translations out there, and footnotes, commentaries, dictionaries and other tools to be able to do a good deal without being able to read greek, to have a high degree of confidence in the translated text. No translation is perfect, but we work with good-but-not-quite-perfect tools all the time. Yes, it's better to work in the original languages if you have the tools to do that, but one can do a very good job without.
Hopefully they were working off the originals then.

I mean, if no one has seen the opriginals, and we're all working of tran slations of copies of copies, then we still have no idea what happened between the original and the earliest copies we have.

By checking against what other people are coming up with when they come at the text from other starting-points and directions. By reading the work of scholars who are in-touch with the original languages and do study the cultures in which texts were produced, etc. And by doing so within a community doing the same so our learning bounces of each other.

So as long as your conclusions agree with what others have done?

I don't expect you to assume anything. When I said "we aren't working alone" I was referring to the fact that we are working in a community, not to the Holy Spirit.

Like I just said, that would suggest to me that we are working towards what most people today think was meant, not what the original authors think was meant.

We are limited people. Any non-trivial text is harder for some people than others - though I would suggest that pretty much everybody who can read can get something out of it. But the goal isn't reading the bible, the goal is growing as christians within a People of God that is also growing.

But the inconsistancies are the sort of thing that would be easily fixed.

Each Gospel has a different account of who was waiting at the tomb when the women turned up. It would be easy enough to have these all match. And if the meaning of these accounts depended on having different people there, then we have people manipulating the truth to serve their own agendas.

To a degree that's your personal problem that you've acquired from your particular (and highly unusual) culture.

Excuse me? My desire to know factual truth is highly unusual? Or are you referring to my atheism?

It's important that Jesus rose from the dead on Easter morning, it is not important that we can construct the precise chronology of who saw what that morning any more than its important that we know the colour of his underwear.

This seems to encourage blind faith. "Believe the story, we're not going to give you anything you can use verify what we are saying, despite the fact that our stories have inconsistancies."


So then we have God/Jesus manipulating real events just to make sure the story about these events has a metaphorical meaning as well?

Sucks for the poor tree, yeah?

A little bit of understanding of parables, reading in context, and checking the different synoptics, quickly shows up that its an enacted parable of judgement on the Temple.

A parable? Jesus used parables many times and never needed to have them performed in reality to make his point. Why then did the tree need to be cursed?

Why not. If a significant event happens, but you get 4 different witnesses to describe it, each of which has a slighly different take on its significance, you will get 4 different accounts. There are studies out there noting this - not least on Wittgenstein's Poker.

I would not expect two different accounts of Lincoln's life to say, for example that he was shot by John Wilkes Booth in Ford's Theatre in one and the other to say he was shot by John Wilkes Ford in Booth Theatre. And yet it is discrepancies of this kind we see in the Bible.

Not all of the facts of all accounts may be exactly factual, but the four accounts may still all be true in the meaning they are giving. People don't tell accounts to get the facts perfect, they tell accounts to convey the meaning.

Like Aesop's Fables.

That's a very different question to that which we have been discussing.

Not too different. We're still talking about reasons to believe or not the claims made by the Bible.

While by no means everything in scripture is testable, it offers far more that is open to investigation that most religions because it at least claims to have foundational events like the resurrection embedded in real history. At least in principle the tools of history can investigate whether Jesus rose from the dead - if you want to see what that looks like read Resurrection of the Son of God (N.T. Wright).

When the claims made about creation are tested, they are revealed to be in conflict with scientific knowledge.

This is another kind of contradiction - the Bible contradicting scientific knowledge.

As I've said, I don't think "infallible" is a meaningful concept.

The issue of whether the Bible contains mistakes or not is very meaningful.

That's their problem, not mine.

YOu started off the post I am quoting by saying that many people see no problem with interpretting it as literal, despite it being a poem. Do you disagree? Why are they wrong to interpret a poem as literal?

Yes, speculation.

As I've said before, I can't accept speculation as a way to gain factual knowledge.

Yes, Genesis 2 clearly states that.

However, since Genesis 2 is from a different perspective, it is likely that Adam wasn't aware that animals were there with him until God introduced the animals to him. Perhaps speculation, but it explains the contradictory creation accounts.

Which only makes sense if Genesis was written by people, without input from someone who knew better.

If it doesn't explain it, then this is what I have to say. Genesis 1 is the more reliable account of creation.

Why?

The word face in Exodus 33:11 is literal. It refers to Moses seeing God in a perceivable form.

Isn't this speculating that God changed his form to something with a viewable-without-death face?

Judges 13:21-22 When the Angel of the LORD appeared no more to Manoah and his wife, then Manoah knew that He was the Angel of the LORD. And Manoah said to his wife, “We shall surely die, because we have seen God!”

"Seen God" merely means seeing God in a perceivable form, which in the OT was the Angel of the Lord.

By that logic, someone could claim they had seen Barrack Obama if they had merely seen any member of the US government.

The Angel of the Lord was the preincarnate Christ since He received worship (which belongs to God alone).

Huh? You mean that it was Jesus before he came to Earth?

Is this one of those "This is the only way it makes sense, so it must be true" bits?
 
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ebia

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Ah.

Now, I asked why there are inconsistancies between the two accounts. You explained to me that this is because Gen 1 is a poem,
I don't think I did. I think that was somebody else.

It is a poem, which Gen 2/3 is not, and therefore one would not expect them to match up, but the main reason they are "inconsistant" is that they are completely different sorts of origins literature, neither of which is about the factual mechanics of the creation process, but about different aspects of the relationships between God, Creation, and us.


but now you are telling me that some people (a very large prpoportion, from what I have read) still consider Gen 1 to be literal. So it would seem that Gen 1 being a poem isn't the answer!
It's a large proportion in North America, but not so large a proportion globally.

I'm sorry, I just follow occam's Razor. If a person is sick, receives medical treatment and then recovers, I praise those who I could see played a part. I'm not going to assume God played a part and then say, "God must have played a part, that proves God exists."
I didn't say it proves God exists. 99% of Jewish and Christian thought is not about proving that God exists - that's taken as a given.


I don't think it matters what terms they used.
The terms you use show the sort of thinking you are doing. The ideas that underly words like "infallibility" and "inerrancy" come out of a modernist way of thinking. That's not true for ideas like reliability. One needs to realise that the modernist worldview is not the framework most people for most of history have thought within.


But the fact remains that the accounts of the gospels say things that are directly contradicted by the accounts in the other gospels.
And so would four independent contempory reports on, say, the bombing of Hiroshima. Not because they are fabrications, certainly not because Hiroshima was not bombed, but because they meaning the reports are giving to that bombing are different and any storyteller tells the story to bring out the meaning they attribute to it. So, for example, in the resurrection accounts John only has Mary Mags (Miriam) there because he wants to make clear this is the New Exodus. Luke, Mark and Matthew tell it differently because they want to bring out different aspects of its meaning. None of them are primarily concerned with the actual trivial facts of exactly which women were then - an obsession with that kind of detailed fact over the meaning is not something that existed in their worldview or most others. It doesn't even exist in ours to the degree people pretend except when they want to find a reason to reject something. If you get 4 separate independent accounts of an event you will always get that level of discrepancy - when you don't its taken (quite rightly) as a sign of collaboration.

That doesn't tell me why God couldn't do it. All it does is tell me about the inherent problems with a being that is (supposedly) omnipotent - which is one of the reasons I am an atheist.
"Omnipotence" is not a biblical word - its an (intrinsically flawed) Greek idea. Its a convenient shorthand for saying "God is very, very powerful" but press it on detail and it doesn't work. To ask "can God do X" where X is self-contradictory is a meaningless question. To reject all possible ideas of God because you've manage to construct a meaningless question to ask about God is, frankly, silly.


I beg to differ.

Firstly, given that we have (supposedly) no other texts written with the aid of a God, we have no way of knopwing for sure what a text written with God would look like. So how can you say that the Bible displays such characteristics?
We can't. I didn't say we could. If you insist on taking every statement I make as though its supposed to be a proof of the existence of God this discussion gets very tedious.

The point is, and is no more than, you reject the bible because it doesn't look like you think it should if God was involved. I say that's simply because you have a mistaken idea of what it should look like if a god like YHWH was involved. That's not a proof that he was involved, but it is a refutation of your 'proof' that he wasn't.

Secondly, the different books of the Bible are written in many different styles - implying that they were written by many different people without any creative input in common at all.
God works with people and their particular talents and styles, he doesn't override that.

Thirdly, I am very familiar with works written solely by people, and the Bible fits the mold exactly.
As it should.

Honestly, I only care about the literal aspect. Did it actually happen?
Did what exactly actually happen? Did God create -yes. Did it take 6 periods of 24 hours - no. Did God create people - yes. Did he literally do that by molding some clay with his hands and puff air into it - no. Does he breath life into his creatures (us), yes. Did God create Adam - well the word Adam means man and is a pun on the word for dust or earth. Are the early chapters of Genesis an historical account in the same sort of what that "The Pellopenisain War" or the Gospel of Luke is an historical account - no.

Genesis 1 is about such things as:

  • God created everything
  • God creates by bringing order from chaos
  • God creates by creating habitats and providing creatures to inhabit those habitats
  • God's creation is good
  • God created humanity (both male and female) to be his image in and for creation
  • By creating us his creation becomes very good - we are the pinacle of that creation
  • We have a job to do as stewards of that creation and as God's image
  • That job involves a cycle of work and rest
  • We are for creation, and creation is for us
  • In particular it refutes a lot of the very nasty ideas in certain Babylonian creation stories
(Genesis 2/3 has a whole other set of ideas to convey).

Genesis 1 is not about:
  • The mechanics of how God created
  • The timescale he used
  • The order things were actually created in
Those are aspects of the narrative structure that is designed to carry the first set of meanings. Which, incidentally, are some of the sorts of questions mosts creation stories are written to answer because they are the sorts of questions that most people at most times in history want answers to. The second set of bullet points are the sorts of questions people in the western world for the last 300 years have been obsessed by.




if it didn't happen, then it is just a story. And while it may contain an important message, it's no more important than Aesop's Fables.
There's no "just" about stories. Stories are powerful things - they change the way people think. Lists of facts are not more important nor more true than stories.



When I speak of truth, I am talking about facts.
And that's your problem!
Facts, generally, aren't the big truths, nor the important truths.

Did it actually happen? I mean, by what you said just now, I could say that Harry Potter is true because it contains an important message about doing what is right and good, even though it may be hard.
If the message of Harry Potter is really important, and true, and the story tells it in a really powerful way, then yes. (I don't think it is those things, but that's not a discussion we need to have).

Hopefully they were working off the originals then.
They have seen the original language texts.
We don't have the original manuscripts of any ancient text - but for the New Testament we have such a huge number of manuscripts (orders of magnitude more than for other texts of the same period) so that we can reconstruct the originals to a high degree of precision - way better than for any other ancient text. The situation for the Old Testament is a little more complex, and we can go into that if you want, but again we have a very high degree of certainty about the vast majority of the text.


So as long as your conclusions agree with what others have done?
There wouldn't be much point in learning in community if I wasn't willing to learn from others, be challenged by their viewpoints, etc.

Like I just said, that would suggest to me that we are working towards what most people today think was meant, not what the original authors think was meant.
No, because we have historians, and other ancient texts, to keep pulling us back if we allow them to. There's actually been a huge amount of work over the last 50-100 years on how texts would be heard in 2nd Temple Israel, say.


But the inconsistancies are the sort of thing that would be easily fixed.
And the earliest church deliberately chose not to because it would remove clarity meaning from the texts.

The text are not trying to be chronologically precise accounts of the event, they are trying to be theological accounts of the event.

Each Gospel has a different account of who was waiting at the tomb when the women turned up. It would be easy enough to have these all match. And if the meaning of these accounts depended on having different people there, then we have people manipulating the truth to serve their own agendas.
Again, your bring your bias of what one should be doing when one tells a story to a world that did not share that bias. John, or Luke, or Mark, or Matthew, or Paul is telling the story for a reason, and (like any other person recounting an event) they allow that reason to shape the way they tell the story. And I've given you an example of that from John; he's not interested in telling us what women were there then - he is interested in telling us this is New Exodus so he only mentions one of them and puts all the focus of his story on her - Mary Magdalen, Miriam. If you want to call that "having an agenda" and "manipulating" then so-be-it, but its what every story teller does whether they are John, a modern historian, or a reporter for the Sydney Morning Herald. It's even what you do if you try to tell the bare facts - you have to be selective (what other agenda then drives your selection), and you have to ignore meanings to concentrate on those facts.



Excuse me? My desire to know factual truth is highly unusual?
Western modernisms obsession on facts over other sorts of truth is highly unusual.

This seems to encourage blind faith. "Believe the story, we're not going to give you anything you can use verify what we are saying, despite the fact that our stories have inconsistancies."
What do you want - people to invent things just so you can verify by your rules if they are true or not?

The epistimology behind the use of loaded phrases like "blind faith" would be a whole separate thread in itself.



So then we have God/Jesus manipulating real events just to make sure the story about these events has a metaphorical meaning as well?
Again, that's a loaded question.

Sucks for the poor tree, yeah?
Not a tiny fraction as much as the real event would damage the local environment when it came in AD70.


A parable? Jesus used parables many times and never needed to have them performed in reality to make his point. Why then did the tree need to be cursed?
There are quite a few enacted parables in the gospels. It's just that people have tended to reserve the word for the spoken ones.



I would not expect two different accounts of Lincoln's life to say, for example that he was shot by John Wilkes Booth in Ford's Theatre in one and the other to say he was shot by John Wilkes Ford in Booth Theatre.
You'll get a fair degree of discrepancy if they are genuinely independent accounts written close to the event, and thats even within a culture starting to get this obsession with the factual detail. Now its not likely to look quite the way you put it, but one account might simply say something like "he was shot by Booth in Ford's Theatre" and another saying "he was shot by John Wilkes in the Main Street Theatre", even to the point where there is disagreement about the number of shots, who witnessed it, the exact order of events, and so on. A process of reconciliation may iron out those details if allowed to and if there is a desire to. Go read about Wittgenstien's Poker - some of the (supposedly) greatest thinkers of the time witnessed the event, they all agreed something had happened and that it was significant, but none of them could agree on exactly what.

Like Aesop's Fables.
No, because in this case they are all accounts of a real event (or, at least, are supposed to be). But the way they tell that event will depend on the meaning they are bringing out in it - just as the historian telling the story of Lincoln's death will tell the story in a way that brings out the meaning he wishes to give it within certain boundaries.


Not too different. We're still talking about reasons to believe or not the claims made by the Bible.
The post is quite long enough without going off on extra tangents.

When the claims made about creation are tested, they are revealed to be in conflict with scientific knowledge.
We don't need scientific evidence to tell us people don't come back from the dead. People in the 1st century knew that just as well as we do. The Resurrection is supposed to be an exceptional event, so looking at what normally happens is a category error.

The issue of whether the Bible contains mistakes or not is very meaningful.
The issue of whether the bible is reliable about the sorts of things it is supposed to be reliable about is meaningful. The issue of whather Song of Songs makes a good recipe for Black-Forrest-Gateaux is not.


YOu started off the post I am quoting by saying that many people see no problem with interpretting it as literal, despite it being a poem. Do you disagree? Why are they wrong to interpret a poem as literal?
There are a whole heap of reasons why I (and outside of N.American most of Chrisitanity) think the early chapters of Genesis are essentially myth - albeit true myth. Is anything served by going through those?



As I've said before, I can't accept speculation as a way to gain factual knowledge.
If all you are interested in is collecting what 20th century science calls "objectively verifiable facts" then we are probably wasting our time.
 
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