Deren
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- Apr 12, 2005
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Apex said:Yes, the early Christians did draw their belifes from our scriptures, but, there can be different interpretations of scripture.
Yet, when the Mormon is asked what his interpretation is based upon, the usual response is analogous to a warm fuzzy and a real good hunch. There is no allusion to what or why the author wrote what he did as based on an analysis of grammar and history, and this is especially true if the Mormon prophet is demonstrated to be false or a huckster. So, one really has to wonder why any Mormon would bring up "different interpretations" at all, other than muddy waters that he is incapable or unwilling to tread.
Apex said:And they used a lot more books of scripture to define their belifes then we do.
Which is irrelevent, given that regardless of the number of books, unless one has a relatively clear method as to how those books are going to be interpreted, whatever interpretation that might be derived from them is going to be spurious at best or way off in left field chasing fairies and snorks at worst, much like what Joseph Smith ended up doing.
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Where do Mormons get that from scripture? Is it backed up by the Bible at all? Also, it is often overlooked that mormons believe in a Goddess. They call her "Mother God". I ask you Mormons, if she was God's wife, then why wasn't she in the Bible? I am also curious to where you get the doctrine of God being a man from the Bible.