EdwinWillers
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- Jan 13, 2010
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This is basically correct. We're generally on the same page here...Actually, I think you can do this very easily, within logic, without implying anthropomorphisms. The market is a collection of transactions within specific limitations. The American market takes place within America; the global market takes place either within the globe, or between two countries. Now, the market itself isn't capable of morality; rather, as you said earlier, it holds a multiplicity of morals, precisely because it is corporate. Moreover, the market (as a collection of transactions) provides different things for different people. It's overall goal or aim, regardless of what is exchanged, is the the exchange, or the fulfillment of what each party values. I value footballs, a company making footballs values making money; we exchange product for cash, that's that.
Well, I think you're asking the right question. "What makes a transaction moral - is it because of what is being exchanged or that the exchange is done freely; or should something else be considered?"This much is very clear; all I've done is defined a market as a collection of these transactions. Individual transaction, or collective transactions, we still have the question of something being moral because it is freely transacted, or whether it depends on what is being transacted. We have to ask what is being transacted; we can't just look at the fact that things are being exchanged and declare the process moral precisely because there is free exchange. If we do this, we allow for things like drugs and smut to be moral. We can't say the process of exchanging is moral and then turn around and say that the things exchanged are immoral; the things exchanged are implied in the free transaction, and they are what defines the transaction as moral or immoral.
I agree with you that calling a transaction 'moral' on the basis of how freely it was done is not properly "moral." For, as you noted, the exchange could involve things admittedly valued by both parties, but at the same time such things that are not valued by others in society - or the rest of society as a whole (e.g. smut, illegal drugs, etc.) - or the very transaction itself.
Consider then a third possibility - the scope of the transaction.
Let's say someone opens up a inappropriate content shop in town. Proprietor and customers value what's being exchanged. But it's in town, the lewd advertising there for all to see, the opportunity perhaps for underage kids to go in and see what's only alluded to outside - etc. Would that be moral? I would argue no. Not on the basis that they customers and proprietor are free to exchange value for value (dollars for smut), but neither on the basis of what they are exchanging (smut). Rather, I would argue its immorality on the basis that their exchange is forcing others to view things they do not want to view; or forcing others to accept values (smut) they do not want to accept, or do not want their children say, to accept.
For a transaction to be free of force or coercion, it necessarily requires those whom the transaction may affect (directly or indirectly) be free of force or coercion as well.
Take the issue of second-hand smoke. While not a transaction per se (we can discuss "interactions" after we've exhausted the topic of "transactions"), it illustrates perfectly my point - that while a person may be "free" to smoke in a restaurant - those who sit in their vicinity are forced (against their will) to breathe that second hand smoke. The "scope" then of the smoker's "freedom" extends beyond just their table to those around them who are affected by their smoke as well.
Suppose then two people conduct a transaction where no one outside the transaction is involved in any way, affected in any way by it (I speak ideally). Does it matter what is exchanged? Should it matter? Who defines such a transaction as moral or immoral?
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