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I gave you Biblical facts (as requested), and you gave me romantic interpretations based upon metaphors.
If you are this committed to them, how come you didn't also advocate ritual suicide, considering that Jesus also compared Baptism to death?
Yes, but it would take so long to do it well. "There is much water here" refers to a series of shallow pools unsuitable for immersion, so that baptismal mode had to be affusion or something like it. Jesus' own baptism is often misrepresented by Christians of certain traditions as immersion because they wrongly interpret "came up out of the water" to mean "from beneath the waves" when it really refers to his ascending the banks of the river from the river (the "up from"), and so on.
Yes.
To speak of baptismal sprinkling would constitute a contradiction of terms. The verbs represent entirely different actions.
Second, there is not a solitary passage in the New Testament that lends any support to the idea that the act called baptism by the New Testament writers was administered by the sprinkling or pouring of water upon a persons head.
Albert Barnes, the Presbyterian scholar, attempted to defend sprinkling as a mode of baptism. Regarding Matthew 3:16, he wrote:
It literally means, he [Jesus] went up directly FROM the water. The original does not imply that they had descended into the river, and it cannot be proved, therefore, from this passage, that his baptism was by immersion (Commentary on Matthew, p. 30; emp. in original).
The argument is based upon the fact that the term from (ASV) is the Greek term apo, which generally means away from, and not out of (KJV), which normally is expressed by the word ek. But there are several things wrong with this argument.
Apo can be used in the sense of out of, as in the case of Luke 24:47, where the gospel was to go forth from, i.e., out of, Jerusalem. In fact, occasionally apo and ek are used interchangeably....
...Mark also wrote that Jesus was baptized of John in the Jordan (1:9). Actually, the preposition, rendered in in our common versions (yet see ASVfn), is eis, which means into. S.T. Bloomfield (1790-1869), of the Church of England (a church that practices sprinkling as a substitute for immersion) was honest enough to admit that the expression eis ton Iordanen meant that Jesus was baptized by being plunged into the water (The Greek Testament With English Notes, Vol. I, p. 158).
Finally, the theological connection between baptism, and the burial and resurrection of Christ (Romans 6:3-4; Colossians 2:12), negates the notion that the rite may be performed by sprinkling or pouring. The prospective Christian is buried in the water of baptism with Christ. Just as Jesus was raised out of the tomb, so we also are raised from the liquid grave of baptism.
This analogy, among other matters, led John Henry Blunt (1823-1884), another Anglican scholar, to acknowledge (against his own church) that the primitive mode of baptizing was by immersion (Dictionary of Doctrinal and Historical Theology, p. 75). https://www.christiancourier.com/articles/1036-was-jesus-immersed-in-the-jordan-river
That seems like quite stretch. I'm not sure what verses you are referring to but, it would seem "There is much water here" would have been said because there was enough water for immersion.
You'd prefer for it to mean that, but you understand, I hope, that there's no reason it has to. So...what does the area actually look like? That would decide it, wouldn't you agree? Well, it is a marshy place where there are many shallow pools, nothing that would obviously be good for immersion, but it sure would be a place that would be described as having a lot of water.
What area are you referring to and what are your scriptures references to support that exact place?
But no matter what area you are referring to you have no factual evidence
People will choose to do what and believe what they wish, bit the most faithful view of baptism is immersion.
i'm not too sure we can go by what it looks like today.
if you've been baptized in the holy spirit you will know scripture isn't talking about water here
many people who have been in religion for a while and not had the baptism of the holy ghost are going to resist the notion that it is biblical.
Baptism is with water.
Immersion is one of several means of applying it.
Baptism is "for the remission of sins."
When it is said to do something "in the name of" it means "by the authority of," not the stating of a given name. For example, "Stop in the name of the law" does not mean yelling "law, law" at a robber.
Matthew 28:19
New International Version (NIV)
19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
Of course it does. The speaker says that he can be baptised without further delay because of the amount of water in that region where he was standing.so you're saying that the word baptized being used here must refer to water baptism
I see where you went with this. Is the same greek word used in both passages?
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