Most of the changes done in new versions are not due to better "scholarship" or manuscripts, but are done to conform to some modern theology, or to make it more acceptable to people of all beliefs.
This is a judgment of motives that is completely unsustainable. I am not influenced by New Age philosophy and am in fact repulsed by even a hint of it. However, as a Greek scholar, my translation is almost invariably very similar to at least one modern translation (and not always just the NIV). I'm sorry: you cannot with any honesty before God tell me that I am influenced by new winds of false doctrine.
I'll point out one serious doctrine that the NIV and others destroy in Matthew 5:22 wherein Jesus said "...whosoever is angry with his brother WITHOUT A CAUSE shall be in danger of the judgment..." once again the NIV reads the same except they throw out those capitalized words. That completely changes the passage and destroys its meaning. It makes Jesus a violator of his own teaching (when he was angry with the moneychangers and cast them out of the temple)
Perhaps you would have been one of those scribes who added that phrase to alleviate a difficult reading. Sometimes, Jesus said things we don't understand, but adding words to Matthew's won't help matters. And that's what was done here. You don't have to understand why Jesus said that, but if this one verse makes Jesus a liar, you don't have much faith in Jesus and his wisdom. As though you can understand everything he ever said if you just add in enough "clarifying" words.
Or 1Tim 3:16. KJV reads: "God was manifest in the flesh". whereas new versions read "he appeared in a body" Why was this done? To make their version acceptable to people who want to deny the deity of Christ?. As it stands in the KJV, nobody can logically deny that bit of doctrine. Not only does this rendering make no sense in the context, it ignores the vast majority of all manuscripts in Greek and all other ancient translations.
Here you exhibit your disregard for doing real research to find out what God meant. The Greek word which
is translated
correctly in the KJV as "was manifest" in no way disagrees with the word "appeared:" it does not mean he just seemed to be in the flesh (or a body - same stinkin' word for both, although "flesh" is archaic in English), but that he was "made visible." You can only arrive at your warped view because you are looking for it to mean something else.
Little things like calling Jesus "The One" is nothing more than New Age philosophy and/or Hinduism.
Once again, a little ignorance goes a long way. Tell me what the difference is in saying "He who/that" instead of "The One who," besides the obvious outdatedness of the former. In modern English, there's no better way of representing a substantive participle, and I challenge you to disprove that.
Throwing out "Lucifer" and "Calvary" and even "fornication" are detrimental to anyone trying to learn the Bible.
WHAT?! There is ONE KJV verse that mentions "Lucifer." It was translated from the Hebrew "heylel," meaning "shining one," signifying the morning star (Venus), and became "Lucifer" ("light-bearer") only by translating it into Latin. And as for "Calvary,"
Easton's Bible Dictionary says it is from "the Latin name Calvaria, which was used as a translation of the Greek word Kranion, by which the Hebrew word Gulgoleth was interpreted, the place of a skull. And "immorality" and "sexual immorality" cover more ground than "fornication" does today; today, in ENGLISH, it carries the primary connotation of sex outside of marriage, although the Greek word and the 1611 word "fornication" both mean every kind of unlawful sexual intercourse, or, as modern translations often say, "immorality."
Evidently God doesnt think too highly of higher education.
You cannot excuse laziness or inability to be educated by making such ridiculous statements. "Where is the wise?" Is this the same "wise" that Proverbs was talking about, telling us that we are to pursue wisdom? No, it's talking about the wisdom and knowledge of those trying to oust God from his position. If God thought so lowly of education and learning, why did he choose one of the best educated men of his day to be the most influential Christian of all time (Paul of Tarsus)? Aren't we to be as crafty as serpents? When God redeemed me, he redeemed my mind as well as my soul. If I use that mind to ignore his wisdom, only then am I using the "wisdom of this world." That wisdom has to do with bad philosophy, not good scholarship.