There is no fallacy in formal logic called "God-of-the-Gaps". You are making things up.Postulating a supernatural explanation for a physical phenomenon in the absence of scientific understanding is called the "God-of-the-Gaps" argument and is considered a fallacy in formal logic.
I never referred to anything as proof of anything. So I'm not sure what you think should be backed by citations. Please clarify.I'm annoyed because you claim the existence of proof and don't bother to cite any of it.
I did not assume anything. I asked because I was referring to annoying atheists in my OP, and then you directly quoted that and said you would be annoyed. I was just asking.And no, I am not an atheist. Why does everyone who thinks God works through purely physical mechanisms without directly interfering is an atheist?
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