I've heard (from friends and other skeptics) that christianity used to be like the way Islam. Most of/all the backup to this comes from the old testament. I have only read the new testament, and not yet the old, so this lack of knowledge may be whats causing my perplexity. The verse below is the specific reference my friend made:
Leviticus 21v9: Also the daughter of any priest, if she profanes herself by harlotry, she profanes her father; she shall be burned with fire.
I'll reference/paraphrase some other verses too that have been brought up before and are relevant:
Leviticus 24v16: Death for blasphemy/cursing
Deuteronomy 21v18-21: Death for disobeying parents
Deuteronomy 22v23: Death for adultery
from what i've graphically heard and seen, isis/islam have been executing people religiously and it's horrific; their motives appear religious too a. Is it fair for my friend to say that the old testament times were just like this, except maybe with different methods?
I understand that Israel in these times was a theocracy so these sins could be punished by civil action.But is the sentence, death, just? Skeptics/my friend raise this to question the authority of the bible; if God is perfectly just then how could he condone these punishments. And if no-one could keep these laws as we are all sinners, then why wasn't everyone killed in the old testament?
Honestly I can understand this concern, however unlike my friend I want my doubt to lead towards a resolve rather than a confirmation. I do believe the word of God is inerrant and my confusion is from some misunderstanding.
It could be that my comprehension of the offensiveness of sin is simply way off and death for some of these things is fair. I honestly don't know. ignorance would be bliss but i choose not to just push the concerns away; the concerns (whether educated or not) are legitimate. Please can someone help me through this:
Why do the OT punishments such as Leviticus 21v9, seem so harsh?
Leviticus 21v9: Also the daughter of any priest, if she profanes herself by harlotry, she profanes her father; she shall be burned with fire.
I'll reference/paraphrase some other verses too that have been brought up before and are relevant:
Leviticus 24v16: Death for blasphemy/cursing
Deuteronomy 21v18-21: Death for disobeying parents
Deuteronomy 22v23: Death for adultery
from what i've graphically heard and seen, isis/islam have been executing people religiously and it's horrific; their motives appear religious too a. Is it fair for my friend to say that the old testament times were just like this, except maybe with different methods?
I understand that Israel in these times was a theocracy so these sins could be punished by civil action.But is the sentence, death, just? Skeptics/my friend raise this to question the authority of the bible; if God is perfectly just then how could he condone these punishments. And if no-one could keep these laws as we are all sinners, then why wasn't everyone killed in the old testament?
Honestly I can understand this concern, however unlike my friend I want my doubt to lead towards a resolve rather than a confirmation. I do believe the word of God is inerrant and my confusion is from some misunderstanding.
It could be that my comprehension of the offensiveness of sin is simply way off and death for some of these things is fair. I honestly don't know. ignorance would be bliss but i choose not to just push the concerns away; the concerns (whether educated or not) are legitimate. Please can someone help me through this:
Why do the OT punishments such as Leviticus 21v9, seem so harsh?
Except to say that Islam "believes in" the OT as well, so it ought not be surprising that parallels can be drawn from that part of history. 
