Are all the passages claiming relationship to Messiah, true?

[AbbaLove]

I not forcing my beliefs on anyone. I asked you a simple question that you could not or would not answer. I'll ask it again:

So if Yeshua is an "Elohim" and his Father is his "Elohim", then you have two "Elohim".​

Oh, but i did answer your question more than once ... you just didn't like my answer supported by scripture. Again and again your understanding is misconstrued. No one has said that Yeshua is "an Elohim" and YHVH is "another Elohim." However, what you have said is that YHVH is "Elohim" while Yeshua is "my elohim" which is not consistent with the Deity of the Godhead (Col. 2:9)

I do not treat him as my "LORD" and my "GOD". It is the YHWH my Elohim who made Yeshua to me my Lord (Acts 2:36) and my elohim.

Try treating Yeshua as "Lord" and my "God" ​

Prefer Visionary's post over yours because: (1) Honors the Deity of the Godhead; (2) Accepted within the Messianic Community; and (3) Agrees with the words of Thomas -- "My Lord and my God."

Yeshua was assigned to earth and its redemption. All matters were in His hands since the foundation of the world. Any mention of God is a mention of Yeshua. Genesis 17:19…….The Seed of Isaac…….Romans. 9:7

"For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily"​

John 14:6 Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
Yeshua said, “I AM the Way — and the Truth and the Life; no one comes to the Father except through me."

Certainly you can't be the only member of this Messianic forum
that is so adamant that Yeshua is an "elohim" ?​

 

[gadar perets]

Oh, but i did answer your question more than once ... you just didn't like my answer supported by scripture.​

I must have missed your answer. Please direct me to the post # where you addressed those four verses.
​

Prefer Visionary's post over yours because: (1) Honors the Deity of the Godhead; (2) Accepted within the Messianic Community; and (3) Agrees with the words of Thomas -- "My Lord and my God."

1) Do you not realize that "Godhead" is a riduculous translation? A better translation is Divinity or Deity. 2) Why is that so important to you? The Christian Community did not protect their members from false doctrine. What makes you think the Messianic Community's views are so valuable? 3) Thomas didn't speak English.

​

John 14:6 Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
Yeshua said, “I AM the Way — and the Truth and the Life; no one comes to the Father except through me."

I believe that wholeheartedly except for the capitalization of "I AM". Talk about putting one's own bias into a translation!

 

[AbbaLove]

John 14:6 Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
Yeshua said, “I AM the Way — and the Truth and the Life; no one comes to the Father except through me."​

I believe that wholeheartedly except for the capitalization of "I AM". *Talk about putting one's own bias into a translation!

Colossians 2:9 ~ For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;​

There may be others in this MJ forum that think the use of all caps "I AM the Way" misrepresents the Godhead, but so far you seem to be the only one to object to all caps. Sure there may be some that think a better translation could've/should've recorded Thomas' words as just "My Lord!" However, have any MJs come forward to support your belief that Yeshua is an "elohim (god)."

The word "elohim" is usually associated with a pagan god, but never with Mashiach Yeshua to my knowledge by the Messianic Community. The reason Messianics don't refer to Yeshua as "my elohim (god)" is because the pagan nations that surrounded Israel worshiped false gods (elohims). Whether you know it or not your use of "my elohim" with respect to Yeshua is not helpng a belief that you are trying so hard to convey; especially considering you do believe Col. 2:9.

There are many MJs that would agree with your "Non-Trinity Messianic" stance, but you are not helping yourself by referring to Yeshua as an "elohim"(god). On the other hand there are more than a few MJs that agree with Visionary, so why are you so persistent in trying to convince MJs that Vis' remark is flawed; while yours is beyond repute? Especially, considering that no one else has confronted Visionary about her remark OR on the other hand has agreed with your belief that Yeshua is an "elohim" (god). You seem to be the only MJ that is so outspoken in opposition to Visionary's belief when it represents the beliefs of many within the Messianic Community and members of this MJ forum ...

Deity Of Messiah: Was Yeshua G-d?
http://www.lightofmashiach.org/deity.html​

Yeshua was assigned to earth and its redemption. All matters were in His hands since the foundation of the world. Any mention of God is a mention of Yeshua. Genesis 17:19…….The Seed of Isaac…….Romans. 9:7

 

[gadar perets]

There may be others in this MJ forum that think the use of all caps "I AM the Way" misrepresents the Godhead, but so far you seem to be the only one to object to all caps.

Does your version also capitalize "I am" in the following verses?

Matthew 26:32 But after I am risen again, I will go before you into Galilee.
Acts 22:8 And I answered, Who art thou, Lord? And he said unto me, I am Yeshua of Nazareth, whom thou persecutest.

If so, that is utter nonsense. If not, why not?

Sure there may be some that think a better translation could've/should've recorded Thomas' words as just "My Lord!" However, have any MJs come forward to support your belief that Yeshua is an "elohim (god)."

What does that matter? All I need is Scriptural support and the Ruach's guidance (1 John 2:27).

The word "elohim" is usually associated with a pagan god, but never with Mashiach Yeshua to my knowledge by the Messianic Community. The reason Messianics don't refer to Yeshua as "my elohim (god)" is because the pagan nations that surrounded Israel worshiped false gods (elohims).

Messianics don't refer to Yeshua as "my elohim" because they believe he is the one true God (Elohim). That brings us back to the four verses I asked you about. I await your answer.

There are many MJs that would agree with your "Non-Trinity Messianic" stance, but you are not helping yourself by referring to Yeshua as an "elohim"(god).

I do not refer to Yeshua as my "god". When I refer to him as my elohim, it is with the understanding in my mind that he is second in command to the Father who is my #1 Elohim. That makes Yeshua my #2 elohim. (1 Corinthians 11:3).

On the other hand there are more than a few MJs that agree with Visionary, so why are you so persistent in trying to convince MJs that Vis' remark is flawed; while yours is beyond repute? Especially, considering that no one else has confronted Visionary about her remark OR on the other hand has agreed with your belief that Yeshua is an "elohim" (god). You seem to be the only MJ that is so outspoken in opposition to Visionary's belief when it represents the beliefs of many within the Messianic Community and members of this MJ forum ...

I don't understand why you keep bringing up visionary. It is you I am discussing things with. It is your remarks I'm questioning. I also don't understand your heavy reliance on the beliefs of other MJs. Do you not have the Ruach? Do you not own a Bible? Teach me from the Word through the power of the Ruach without relying on the beliefs of others.

John 20:17 Yeshua said unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
​

Yeshua most likely said "Elohim" twice in this verse. Yeshua's Elohim is his Father (YHWH). The disciples Elohim is Yeshua's Father. My Elohim is Yeshua's Father. Who is your Elohim? Based on your last few posts, your answer would be Yeshua. Is Yeshua's Father your Elohim as well? If yes, then you have two Elohim. That brings us back to the four verses I asked you about ...I'm trying to understand how you harmonize these things, but I'm not getting any answers. All I keep getting is "Mjs this" and "Mjs that". "Visionary this" and "Visionary that".

 

[AbbaLove]

I don't understand why you keep bringing up Visionary.

Because i respect Visionary's conceptualization of Yeshua that agrees with others such as Ellen Kavanaugh​

As long as we both agree with Col 2:9, why is it so important that you want me to accept your concept of Yeshua as "elohim" over that of Visionary's concept of the Deity of the Godhead which is accepted within the Messianic Community ...

Deity Of Messiah: Was Yeshua G-d?
http://www.lightofmashiach.org/deity.html

You could have posted this MJ link, but even so the author doesn't refer to Yeshua as "elohim."

G-d is One, Not A Trinity
http://www.lightofmashiach.org/one.html
by Ellen Kavanaugh
​

He can manifest Himself in any form He chooses without needing to be subdivided to fit the manmade doctrines.

Yeshua said "I and the Father are One."
This flat out disputes the concept of Yeshua being the 'second person of the trinity' since He is identifying Himself as the Father.

Yeshua is the Father as well as the Son. No separation or division is mentioned, therefore, no trinity! G-d is One, and only One. He is not a collection of personages. He can manifest Himself in many forms but He is always One.

Now the Father YHVH created all things by Himself and yet Colossians attributes these acts to the Son, Yeshua. It is clear that Yeshua is not relegated Scripturally to only being the Son, the second person of the Godhead, but that Yeshua is the Father too!

How can we know YHVH meant the Father and not a pre-incarnate Messiah? Easy, read on:

"For Thou art our Father ; for Abraham knoweth us not, and Israel doth not acknowledge us; Thou, O YHVH, art our Father, our Redeemer from everlasting is Thy name." Isaiah 63:16

There is One G-d, YHVH. Period. Who was the pre-incarnate Messiah? It's the same as the incarnate Messiah -- it's YHVH, our sole Father, Creator, L-rd and G-d.​

Yeshua was assigned to earth and its redemption. All matters were in His hands since the foundation of the world. Any mention of God is a mention of Yeshua. Genesis 17:19…….The Seed of Isaac…….Romans. 9:7 (by Visionary)

​

Perhaps now you can appreciate why i prefer Ellen Kavanaugh's teaching and Visionary's statement instead of your conceptualization of Yeshua when you refer to Mashiach Yeshua as being "my elohim" ...

I do not treat him as my "LORD" and my "GOD". It is the YHWH my Elohim who made Yeshua to me my Lord (Acts 2:36) and my elohim.

​

Try referring to Yeshua as "My Lord and my God!"
John 20:28 ~ Thomas said to Him, "My Lord and my God!" ​

​

​

 

[gadar perets]

As long as we both agree with Col 2:9, why is it so important that you want me to accept your concept of Yeshua as "elohim" over that of Visionary's concept of the Deity of the Godhead which is accepted within the Messianic Community ...

I don't care if you accept "elohim" or not. I do care that you come to understand that the Father is the greatest being in the universe which is why He is Yeshua's God/Elohim. He has NO equal. Not even His Son.

Deity Of Messiah: Was Yeshua G-d?

http://www.lightofmashiach.org/deity.html

You could have posted this MJ link, but even so the author doesn't refer to Yeshua as "elohim."

G-d is One, Not A Trinity
http://www.lightofmashiach.org/one.html
by Ellen Kavanaugh

WOW! Now I know why Paul wrote 1 Timothy 2:11-14. Those two articles are far from true.

​

 

[visionary]

Elizabeth knew who was in the womb of Mary.

Luke 1:41 When Elizabeth heard Mary’s greeting, the baby leaped in her womb, and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit. 42 In a loud voice she exclaimed, “Blessed are you among women,and blessed is the fruit of your womb! 43 And why am I so honored, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?…

If this verbal exchange between Mary and Elizabeth were to be interpreted as having taken place in Aramaic or even to have employed some Hebrew, the title attributed by Elizabeth to Mary, "the mother of my Lord," which is "he meter tou kyriou mou" in Greek, could conceivably be taken as a reference to Yeshua as Adonai, "my Lord," a term only used as a substitute for the His divine name, JHWH.

 

[gadar perets]

Elizabeth knew who was in the womb of Mary.

Luke 1:41 When Elizabeth heard Mary’s greeting, the baby leaped in her womb, and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit. 42 In a loud voice she exclaimed, “Blessed are you among women,and blessed is the fruit of your womb! 43 And why am I so honored, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?…

If this verbal exchange between Mary and Elizabeth were to be interpreted as having taken place in Aramaic or even to have employed some Hebrew, the title attributed by Elizabeth to Mary, "the mother of my Lord," which is "he meter tou kyriou mou" in Greek, could conceivably be taken as a reference to Yeshua as Adonai, "my Lord," a term only used as a substitute for the His divine name, JHWH.

Here are just a few of the many verses where the Septuagint uses "kuriou mou" (not "kyriou") for men, not YHWH:

Genesis 24:36 καὶ ἔτεκεν Σαρρα ἡ γυνὴ τοῦ κυρίου μου υἱὸν ἕνα τῷ κυρίῳ μου μετὰ τὸ γηρᾶσαι αὐτόν, καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὅσα ἦν αὐτῷ.
1 Samuel 25:29 καὶ ἀναστήσεται ἄνθρωπος καταδιώκων σε καὶ ζητῶν τὴν ψυχήν σου, καὶ ἔσται ἡ ψυχὴ κυρίου μου ἐνδεδεμένη ἐν δεσμῷ τῆς ζωῆς παρὰ κυρίῳ τῷ θεῷ, καὶ ψυχὴν ἐχθρῶν σου σφενδονήσεις ἐν μέσῳ τῆς σφενδόνης.
1 Samuel 25:31 καὶ οὐκ ἔσται σοι τοῦτο βδελυγμὸς καὶ σκάνδαλον τῷ κυρίῳ μου, ἐκχέαι αἷμα ἀθῷον δωρεὰν καὶ σῶσαι χεῖρα κυρίου μου αὐτῷ. καὶ ἀγαθώσει κύριος τῷ κυρίῳ μου, καὶ μνησθήσῃ τῆς δούλης σου ἀγαθῶσαι αὐτῇ.
1 Samuel 29:8 καὶ εἶπεν Δαυιδ πρὸς Αγχους Τί πεποίηκά σοι καὶ τί εὗρες ἐν τῷ δούλῳ σου ἀφ᾿ ἧς ἡμέρας ἤμην ἐνώπιόν σου καὶ ἕως τῆς ἡμέρας ταύτης, ὅτι οὐ μὴ ἔλθω πολεμῆσαι τοὺς ἐχθροὺς τοῦ κυρίου μου τοῦ βασιλέως;
Daniel 10:17 καὶ πῶς δυνήσεται ὁ παῖς σου, κύριε, λαλῆσαι μετὰ τοῦ κυρίου μου τούτου; καὶ ἐγὼ ἀπὸ τοῦ νῦν οὐ στήσεται ἐν ἐμοὶ ἰσχύς, καὶ πνοὴ οὐχ ὑπελείφθη ἐν ἐμοί.
​

Mary did not have the Almighty Creator, YHWH, in her womb. She was bearing His only begotten Son, Yeshua; her Lord, not her LORD (YHWH).

 

[pinacled]

I don't want to derail this thread any more, my apologies.
Psalm 16- a) bad translation, b) look up context in a dictionary.
Psalm 110 David wrote a song to be sang even after he was gone. He included himself in it. And if David had another Lord beside his Gd, where is he in the story of David? Why is David being so secretive about his other " Lord"?
I apologise, again. I'm out.

Stay awhile.

You shall let me know the way of life, the fullness of joys in Your pressence. There is pleasantness in Your right hand forever.

 

[visionary]

Lord of Lords

Deuteronomy 10:17 For the Lord your God is God of gods and Lord of lords,the great, the mighty, and the awesome God, who is not partial and takes no bribe.

Revelation 17:14 They will make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them, for he is Lord of lords and King of kings, and those with him are called and chosen and faithful..... 19:16 On his robe and on his thigh He has a name written, King of kings and Lord of lords.

1 Timothy 6:15 which he will display at the proper time—He who isthe blessed and only Sovereign, the King of kings and Lord of lords,

 

[visionary]

Holy One

Isa 41:14 Fear not, thou worm Jacob, and ye men of Israel; I will help thee, saith the LORD, and thy redeemer, the Holy One of Israel. .....43:15 I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King.

Mar 1:24 Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee, thou Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us? I know thee who thou art, the Holy One of God.

Act 3:14 But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you;

 

[gadar perets]

Lord of Lords

Deuteronomy 10:17 For the Lord your God is God of gods and Lord of lords,the great, the mighty, and the awesome God, who is not partial and takes no bribe. (FATHER)

Revelation 17:14 They will make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them, for he is Lord of lords and King of kings, and those with him are called and chosen and faithful..... 19:16 On his robe and on his thigh He has a name written, King of kings and Lord of lords. (SON)

1 Timothy 6:15 which he will display at the proper time—He who is the blessed and only Sovereign, the King of kings and Lord of lords, (FATHER)

Yahweh called Nebuchadnezzar "king of kings" in Ezekiel 26:7. Therefore, shared titles do not make two beings one and the same. Yahweh is the ultimate Lord of lords. He made Yeshua to be Lord of all or Lord of all other lords (except over Himself - Acts 2:36; 1 Co 15:27).

 

[gadar perets]

Holy One

Isa 41:14 Fear not, thou worm Jacob, and ye men of Israel; I will help thee, saith the LORD, and thy redeemer, the Holy One of Israel. .....43:15 I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King. (FATHER)

Mar 1:24 Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee, thou Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us? I know thee who thou art, the Holy One of God. (SON)

Act 3:14 But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you; (SON)

Yahweh is the "Holy One of Israel" and Yeshua is the "Holy One of God (Holy One of YHWH).

Psalm 16:10 For thou (YHWH) wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou (YHWH) suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

Yeshua is YHWH's Holy One.

 

[pinacled]

Holy One

Isa 41:14 Fear not, thou worm Jacob, and ye men of Israel; I will help thee, saith the LORD, and thy redeemer, the Holy One of Israel. .....43:15 I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King. (FATHER)

Mar 1:24 Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee, thou Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us? I know thee who thou art, the Holy One of God. (SON)

Act 3:14 But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you; (SON)

Yahweh is the "Holy One of Israel" and Yeshua is the "Holy One of God (Holy One of YHWH).

Psalm 16:10 For thou (YHWH) wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou (YHWH) suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

Yeshua is YHWH's Holy One.

When Abraham sent his servant out to find a wife for Isaac. A woman is at the well. And a bride draws water.
By the way.
By pureness, by knowledge, by longsuffering, by kindness, by the Holy Ghost, by love unfeigned.

By the word of truth, by the power of God.
By the armour of righteousness on the right hand and on the left.

 

[yeshuaslavejeff]

So if Yeshua is an "Elohim" and his Father is his "Elohim", then you have two "Elohim". How does that harmonize with John 17:3; Mark 12:32; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 1 Timothy 2:5 and a host of others?

Perfectly.

 

[gadar perets]

Perfectly.

Do you plan on explaining how with Scripture?

 

[visionary]

Lie #1: Jesus Only Appears in the New Testament
A common argument claims that Jesus is not found in the Hebrew Scriptures– the Old Testament and that He is a Christian or Gentile creation only mentioned in the New Testament. True, the name “Jesus” is not found in the Old Testament, as it is an anglicized version of the Greek name Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous). However, Jesus was born in Israel among a Hebrew-speaking people. His name in Hebrew is “Yeshua.” Matthew 1:21 refers to what was well understood by the Jewish People: the name Yeshua means “salvation” or “God saves.” Matthew 1:21 says, “She will give birth to a son, and you are to give Him the name Jesus, because He will save His people from their sins.” His Hebrew name, Yeshua, means “the LORD saves,” and this is confirmed in many Bibles that contain a footnote such as “Hebrew: Yeshua (Joshua), meaning The LORD saves.”

Biblical names commonly reveal the character, attributes, or destiny of a person. This is exactly the case with the name Yeshua. The reason for His coming to earth was for salvation, to save His People from their sins. Here are just a few examples:

• Adonai is my strength and song, and He has become my salvation” (Exodus 15:2 TLV).
• Adonai has made His salvation known” (Psalm 98:2 TLV).
• So I will give You as a light for the nations, that You should be My salvation tot the end of the earth” (Isaiah 49:6 TLV).

In these verses—and more than 150 times throughout the Old Testament— the word “salvation” is the Hebrew word Yeshua (ye•shu•ah). Yeshua (Jesus) existed from the beginning, and His Hebrew name is found throughout the Hebrew Scriptures in amazing prophecies.

http://www.jewishvoice.org/media/pu...-yeshua.html?referrer=https://www.google.com/

 

[gadar perets]

Lie #1: Jesus Only Appears in the New Testament
A common argument claims that Jesus is not found in the Hebrew Scriptures– the Old Testament and that He is a Christian or Gentile creation only mentioned in the New Testament. True, the name “Jesus” is not found in the Old Testament, as it is an anglicized version of the Greek name Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous). However, Jesus was born in Israel among a Hebrew-speaking people. His name in Hebrew is “Yeshua.” Matthew 1:21 refers to what was well understood by the Jewish People: the name Yeshua means “salvation” or “God saves.” Matthew 1:21 says, “She will give birth to a son, and you are to give Him the name Jesus, because He will save His people from their sins.” His Hebrew name, Yeshua, means “the LORD saves,” and this is confirmed in many Bibles that contain a footnote such as “Hebrew: Yeshua (Joshua), meaning The LORD saves.”

Biblical names commonly reveal the character, attributes, or destiny of a person. This is exactly the case with the name Yeshua. The reason for His coming to earth was for salvation, to save His People from their sins. Here are just a few examples:

• Adonai is my strength and song, and He has become my salvation” (Exodus 15:2 TLV).
• Adonai has made His salvation known” (Psalm 98:2 TLV).
• So I will give You as a light for the nations, that You should be My salvation tot the end of the earth” (Isaiah 49:6 TLV).

In these verses—and more than 150 times throughout the Old Testament— the word “salvation” is the Hebrew word Yeshua (ye•shu•ah). Yeshua (Jesus) existed from the beginning, and His Hebrew name is found throughout the Hebrew Scriptures in amazing prophecies.

http://www.jewishvoice.org/media/pu...-yeshua.html?referrer=https://www.google.com/

The article says "Yeshua" means "the LORD saves". Further down it says "salvation" is the Hebrew word "Yeshua". Which is it? Does it mean "salvation" or "the LORD saves"? As I understand it, "Yeshua" means "he will save".

Here is Isaiah 49:6 with some commentary added.

So I (YHWH) will give You (Yeshua) as a light for the nations, that You (Yeshua) should be My salvation (YHWH's salvation) to the end of the earth” (Isaiah 49:6 TLV).

 

[AbbaLove]

So if Yeshua is an "Elohim" and his Father is his "Elohim", then you have two "Elohim". How does that harmonize with John 17:3; Mark 12:32; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 1 Timothy 2:5 and a host of others?​

What you're attempting to convey is the Father as ELOHIM (LORD) and Yeshua as Elohim (Lord); rather than Yeshua as "an elohim" (all small letters). When you spell "elohim" using all lower case letters the implication is that of a pagan god. This MJ forum went over this quite extensively a few years ago and everyone (MJs) agreed that "elohim" (all lower case letters) generally refers to a pagan god. I know you don't intend to convey that meaning, but that is the implication when you refer to Yeshua as "an elohim" (all small letters).

It is interesting how the KJV most often refers to YHVH (HaShem) with all capitals "LORD" and Yeshua as "Lord" in the Psalms in order to draw a distinction between the Father and the Son.
Psalm 110:1 KJV
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

All translations draw a distinction between ADONAI (YHVH) and Adoni (Yeshua), but no translation would read "adoni" or "elohim" using only lower case letters when referring to Yeshua.
Psalm 110:1 CJB
ADONAI says to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”
Psalm 110:1 OJB
Hashem said unto Adoni [i.e., Moshiach Adoneinu; Malachi 3:1], Sit thou at My right hand, until I make thine enemies a footstool for thy feet.​

What disturbs many MJs is your insistence that Yeshua should be represented as "an elohim" which is really not the impression you intend to convey.

Psalm 110:1 AMP
The Lord (Father) says to my Lord (the Messiah, His Son), “Sit at My right hand until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet [subjugating them into complete submission].”

Personally, I believe King David knew that his Lord was in fact the Messiah to come. What else could one conclude when David says, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool (KJV).

King David was a Messianic Jew
​

 

[gadar perets]

What you're attempting to convey is the Father as ELOHIM (LORD) and Yeshua as Elohim (Lord); rather than Yeshua as "an elohim" (all small letters). When you spell "elohim" using all lower case letters the implication is that of a pagan god. This MJ forum went over this quite extensively a few years ago and everyone (MJs) agreed that "elohim" (all lower case letters) generally refers to a pagan god. I know you don't intend to convey that meaning, but that is the implication when you refer to Yeshua as "an elohim" (all small letters).

It is interesting how the KJV most often refers to YHVH (HaShem) with all capitals "LORD" and Yeshua as "Lord" in the Psalms in order to draw a distinction between the Father and the Son.
Psalm 110:1 KJV
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

All translations draw a distinction between ADONAI (YHVH) and Adoni (Yeshua), but no translation would read "adoni" or "elohim" using only lower case letters when referring to Yeshua.
Psalm 110:1 CJB
ADONAI says to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”
Psalm 110:1 OJB
Hashem said unto Adoni [i.e., Moshiach Adoneinu; Malachi 3:1], Sit thou at My right hand, until I make thine enemies a footstool for thy feet.​

What disturbs many MJs is your insistence that Yeshua should be represented as "an elohim" which is really not the impression you intend to convey.

Psalm 110:1 AMP
The Lord (Father) says to my Lord (the Messiah, His Son), “Sit at My right hand until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet [subjugating them into complete submission].”

Personally, I believe King David knew that his Lord was in fact the Messiah to come. What else could one conclude when David says, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool (KJV).

King David was a Messianic Jew
​

Would it make a difference if I said, "Yeshua is an Elohim" rather than "Yeshua is an elohim"? My main concern is that people do not make Yeshua to be the "only true Elohim" when he himself said his Father was the only true Elohim (John 17:3). If people want to say, "Yeshua is Elohim", fine, as long as they understand that he is NOT an Elohim on the same level as his Father is Elohim. The judges of Israel were "elohim", but not on the level of either the Father or the Son. "Elohim" is simply a title meaning "mighty one". There are degrees of "elohim". The greatest is Father YHWH. That is why I use a small "e" for all others. However, since I use a capital "L" and "S" when referring to Yeshua as my Lord and Savior even though Father YHWH is also my Lord and Savior, I can see I'm being inconsistent in my use of capitals. I will try and correct that.

Are you also concerned about my use of "an"; "Yeshua is an Elohim" rather than "Yeshua is Elohim"?