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Arbitrary objective morality

Danhalen

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nadroj1985 said:
Emphasis mine ( ;) )


My main problem with it would be that "flourish" is a really vague word, but even if it was specifically defined, it wouldn't solve any of the problems I have with the concept of objective morality.
I understand that problem (which is why I haven't sent them my membership application), I share it. I think that it is a good foundation to start with. I am more toward the side of using the context of an action to determine how that action should be labeled. I don't think we can call something good or bad on its own merit. So I think that FOR's reason for calling something moral is a good context to put an action into. I really need to hammer out my own philosophy on this though. I'm working on it. I'll post it here if I ever find all my random daily musings, and put them in order to write an argument for what I believe. You guys will be the second or third to know!
 
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]RiSeN[

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Danhalen said:
Notice the highlighted section of text. If it were not for hindsight, you would have no idea that God's law works (for you).
The troubles of imperfect man. Im answering as a believer. We are all seperated from Gods ways, cursed to forage for truth on our own thanks to the choice of Adam, who chose to make his own morality instead of staying with Gods.

Lets say you live out in the country, and there are farms and fields with cattle all around your property. The farmers use fencing to keep the fields and animals organised. One of the parts of this fence is a wire charged with electrical current which deters the animals from breaching the fences. The animals can sense the current, they dont understand it but the do sense it. You dont sense it, but your parents have told you about it and the consequences. This current is particularly strong as it will kill you. You havent experienced it first hand, you've only witnessed the animals test it and the evidence suggests your parents warning is correct, whatever touches the fence dies. Are you going to touch the wire simply because you personaly have not experienced the electrical shock and therefor the warning that your parents gave you that you will die can not been proven true untill verified? Or are you going to trust your parents warning and leave the warning unverified?
 
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Lifesaver

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Danhalen said:
I am sure that I need not say that I am a moral relativist. Yet I feel that I must say that I have grown quite enamoured of the foundation of morality that the Fellowship of Reason(R) uses to determine what is moral. That is; that which most successfully allows mankind to flourish in their lives (thanks Eudaimonist).

That being said, what good is a system of morality that is based on the arbitrary whim of deity? What does it really say about the system itself? What good does it do for us if it is only in place to glorify the being that put it in place? I understand that some of the moral commandments given by God are iherently good (that is, they allow for the flourishment of mankind), yet some of the moral commandments seem to be rather arbitrary. What do these moral commands accomplish, and what good are they?
Morality depends on the will of God, which is identical to His nature.
Plus, since the creation of the universe is also done by God's will, one may learn what is right or wrong without even knowing about the revealed truth.
Man is a rational animal; one needn't religion to figure that out.
A good spoon is a spoon which does well what a spoon is supposed to do; a good man, likewise, is someone who does well the actions proper to man: someone who lives in accordance with reason.
This is not only how to live ethically, but also how to achieve true human happiness (both natural and supernatural, though the latter needs also the grace of God and man's acceptance of it). It also brings about the flourishing of mankind.

However, to take "what makes mankind flourish" (and this "flourishing" already contains a value judgement implied in it) and try to derive morality from that will probably be misleading, and society will truly flourish when men act rationally (and thus love rationally as well, since men act towards what they love).
By being men as fully as possible, man does what is good and achieves what is best for him; and this is exactly the will of God, the origin of all reality.
 
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Code-Monkey

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Super responses Danhalen!

Danhalen said:
I am not suggesting that each man uses his own axiom. I am suggesting that each man agrees to a common axiom. That axiom, in the case of morality, is to encourage the flourishment of mankind. As ]Fa||eN[ has suggested, we may have come to this understanding through the hindsight of mankind's past errors. I would hope that you agree that the purpose of morality is to ensure the flourishment of mankind. Since the axiom is more of a social contract, rather than an individual enforcement, it is by no means an arbitrary beginning point.

I do in fact agree that one of the primary purposes of morality is to encourage the flourishment of mankind. In my mind this necessitates 3 aspects of morality.

1. We must all agree on that common moral goal, the flourishment of mankind.
2. Individually we have a moral obligation. So there isn't really a sense that I can do whatever I want to do, otherwise I end up preventing others and myself from pursuing that common goal. Of course there are still freedoms within that common goal. There's a lot of room to be unique and so forth.
3. The most obvious - we have moral obligations to each other.

I don't want to get caught up in a semantics game, but you're saying that there's sort of a relative or subjective law, but it's based upon an objective moral axiom, right?

I won't spend any time arguing this, but without a God, even if we both agree that the flourishment of mankind is a good thing, being a good thing does not carry the implication that we "ought" to do it in the same sense that if God sets the moral law it necessitates an "ought".

Danhalen said:
The axiom I am basing my morality on does not change, nor does it have to change. The flourishment of mankind is what has kept us on this planet. Without it, we would have perished long ago. If I were to change the axiom (ever), I think we may have a problem surviving as a species.

Good. Because when I speak of objective morality, I'm speaking more of the moral axioms rather than the specific situation. I agree with your statements that in most situations we ought not to kill each other, but in certain circumstances, it is the right thing to do.

And I think when you say relative or subjective morality, it appears like you're speaking about the moral laws which do depend on the situation, but you still hold that the axiom is objective.

I think we're basically on the same page. In fact my belief is that by and large almost everyone has the same idea of morality.

Danhalen said:
Rather than go into another "does God change" debate (remember how dragged out the last one got?), let me simply state that morality is still the arbitrary decision of God. We follow the rules that God put forth because God said so. Sounds pretty arbitrary to me.

I'm not wanting to take the time to try and refute it here and now. I just want to say this about the word "arbitrary". Here are 2 different definitions from dictionary.com:


  1. Determined by chance, whim, or impulse, and not by necessity, reason, or principle
  2. Based on or subject to individual judgment or preference
What makes me uneasy is that I'm fine with saying yes God's decision would be his individual judgement or preference. What I don't like is the definition that his decision is not determined by his reason and/or principle. It seems necessarily determined by his reason or principle. The reason (I think) the 2nd definition is considered arbitrary is because it's based upon human judgement and preference, which often a decision on chance, whim, or impulse.

But again... not meaning to try to refute it hear, just throwing a quick few sentences. This doesn't seem to be the main point, so I don't mind ignoring it from here on out for this thread.

Danhalen said:
It is not an absolute standard. It never has been. The result of the action is what we judge. If the end result is the flourishment of mankind, we can say that the action was moral. Since we take things in the context of which they happen, there isn't really an objective standard by which we can judge an action until we see the end result. It is only in hindsight that we can call an action moral.

Do you agree with what I wrote up above? If the moral axiom does not change, then it is an absolute or objective standard? The moral laws based upon the moral axiom may change depending on the situation though. So the moral laws aren't categorical imperatives like Kant suggested.

I'm not sure I agree to the only in hindsight idea. It would seem to me that if the moral axiom does not change, then we ought to be able to measure potential actions up against that standard before we do them. I suspect you agree in that if I'm going to decide what to do, I am still supposed to evaluate my potential actions by that moral axiom (using every bit of reason as I can), but you would add the caveat that we won't know for sure if I chose correctly until we see the effects of what I did. Is that fair and accurate?

One thing that seems shaky to me is the fact that I believe sometimes people do moral things and bad stuff still happens. Or sometimes they simply intended no harm, but moral stuff happened anyway. Let me cut the abstract and get to a simple example. One day in a soccer game someone intended to try and harm me. He tried to foul me hard, but I saw it coming and luckily moved out of the way. No physical harm was actually done, oddly I wasn't really upset about it, but I do believe his action was immoral. Now another day in practice a guy I had met for the first time and I were playing against each other and he was legitimately going for the ball. I was a bit quicker than him, but the end result was he clocked my ankle pretty good. He clearly did quite a bit more physical harm to me than the other guy. He was real apologetic though and really intended me no harm. So I don't think his action was in the slightest bit immoral even though it did me more harm than the guy who wanted to hurt me but didn't.

Danhalen said:
So you are saying that we can not judge the end result of an action objectively? I beg to differ. Let's just say that I kill a man. Objectively speaking, we know that if I kill a man it is wrong. Now let's say that I killed this man because he was about to kill twenty innocent people with a machine gun. We can now say that I was moral in killing that man. Objectively, I did what was best.

No... I was saying there at least must be an objective standard for there to be any judging at all. You seem to agree I think.

Danhalen said:
I am saying (assuming God is the author of morality), at one point there was no moral standard, then God decided that there would be. That's pretty arbitrary.

Hmm... I think it would be arbitrary if he once said X and then changed his mind to be NOT X. But if his character would say X if humans existed, then he creates humans, and thus he proclaims X, then he is very consistent and I don't see it as being arbitrary for reasons stated above.

But along that logic... if you are going to do an action and you don't claim it to be moral or immoral yet, you do the action, then look back and claim it one way or the other, then that too would almost appear to be arbitrary. Aha, but if you use the objective standard you mentioned, then we can say no, the moral standard has always existed, it hasn't been made up, it is objective. In that case the moral standard is not arbitrary.

Danhalen said:
I don't think we need to assume that God does change His moral standard to demonstrate any of this. You demonstrated quite clearly, in the other thread, your application of Occam's razor. I think it fits.

My apologies - I didn't remember if I had mentioned that to you or to someone else.

Danhalen said:
If my neighbors are planning on killing me, I am (morally) justified in killing them in self defense. Am I wrong with that assumption?

Yes, I quite agree with that. Well, we both would probably add in the caveat that it's best to try to see if there are less extreme measures to try first, but in the end, if someone insists on being a terrorist, it is just to kill them. I think that's very consistent with christianity, as examplified in the OT as many people point out.
 
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Danhalen

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Code-Monkey said:
I won't spend any time arguing this, but without a God, even if we both agree that the flourishment of mankind is a good thing, being a good thing does not carry the implication that we "ought" to do it in the same sense that if God sets the moral law it necessitates an "ought".
Wow, this is scary to find us actually agreeing (for the most part). I clipped the rest of your post since it seems that you have found our difference of opinion in the remaining section. Even though we disagree, I think we agree. I don't think we "ought" to commit to moral action, I think we "should". There is nothing that compells me to be moral. It is my desire to act morally in order to "flourish" within my society. Whereas, you feel compelled to act morally, because God has commanded that you "ought" to. Am I correct?

As far as the arbitrary thing goes, I don't think that God (as described in the bible) would choose moral law on His whim. I understand what you mean by "through His virtue" God has defined what it is to be moral. I guess I mean arbitrary in the sense of defintion 2 that you provided. Since it is God's preference, it seems to me (in my limited human sensability) that it was God's whim. Which you rightly pointed out in your post.

Now for the objective standard part (which I still have a hang up on). When I refer to my "objective" standard, I am simply using a subjective interpretation of actions to compare to the standard that we (mankind) have agreed upon (via unwritten social contract) to judge the outcome of an action. So really, it is still subjective, but with as much objectivity as I believe I can muster (in order to preserve society). On the other hand, you (as a Christian) have the rules set forth by God (by which you may determine the morality of an action). This becomes more clear for you, yet it is still up to your subjective interpretation of what God has commanded of you. It is still not so black and white after all.

As a final thought in this post, I would have to say that I agree that we should (not ought to) strive to have the foresight to act in accordance with our sense of morality. It just makes things less messy, and clears up the courts for real problems.

Anyway, I have to say that when I can restrain myself from inflammatory comments, we actually have good conversation. I have thoroughly enjoyed our debate in this thread, and I am glad that I was able to keep myself civil. You are not so bad as I imagined you to be.:p I'll have to remember this, so that we may have many more fruitful debates. Thank you for your commentary.
 
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Code-Monkey

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Danhalen said:
Wow, this is scary to find us actually agreeing (for the most part). I clipped the rest of your post since it seems that you have found our difference of opinion in the remaining section. Even though we disagree, I think we agree. I don't think we "ought" to commit to moral action, I think we "should". There is nothing that compells me to be moral. It is my desire to act morally in order to "flourish" within my society. Whereas, you feel compelled to act morally, because God has commanded that you "ought" to. Am I correct?

Well... I feel 2 compelling and competing desires. On the one hand I believe I have the one desire that's ultimately from God that wants me to follow his plan, which would inevitably result in a flourishing society. If we could somehow carry out his plan perfectly, it would be outright spectacular. I feel compelled because I want to do what God wants of me and because as he designed me for that purpose, that desire "fits" best with me. It's like a guitar that is played as a guitar and not as a drum. I can pretend to be a drum, but I was meant to be a guitar, so it's a compelling thing to act in the way we were intended.

On the other hand I do recognize a pretty strong and willful desire within me to say to heck with society, I want to make more money than the guy next to me at work. I'm pretty selfish, so I certainly don't have what's "best for society" in mind very often. but these 2 desires directly compete against each other in me. It's a real struggle.

In short, yes in part I want to act morally because God wants me to, but the benefit of me acting morally I think are just as valid as it is for you. We both believe by acting morally that we get the best possible thing for everyone.

Danhalen said:
Now for the objective standard part (which I still have a hang up on). When I refer to my "objective" standard, I am simply using a subjective interpretation of actions to compare to the standard that we (mankind) have agreed upon (via unwritten social contract) to judge the outcome of an action. So really, it is still subjective, but with as much objectivity as I believe I can muster (in order to preserve society). On the other hand, you (as a Christian) have the rules set forth by God (by which you may determine the morality of an action). This becomes more clear for you, yet it is still up to your subjective interpretation of what God has commanded of you. It is still not so black and white after all.

Ok, I think I understand now. Our difference would be then (I think) that since I claim morality comes from God, and morality is based upon his plan for us, it stands to reason that the plan really could be a very objective plan. And further, if we could really listen to God, then there's the potential that we really could know what is moral in our circumstances in life.

I think I agree with you here as well.

Danhalen said:
Anyway, I have to say that when I can restrain myself from inflammatory comments, we actually have good conversation. I have thoroughly enjoyed our debate in this thread, and I am glad that I was able to keep myself civil. You are not so bad as I imagined you to be.:p I'll have to remember this, so that we may have many more fruitful debates. Thank you for your commentary.

I'm pretty prone to lashing out too at times. It is a great deal more enjoyable when we keep it civil. Thanks. :thumbsup:
 
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ChristianCenturion

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Danhalen said:
I am sure that I need not say that I am a moral relativist. Yet I feel that I must say that I have grown quite enamoured of the foundation of morality that the Fellowship of Reason(R) uses to determine what is moral. That is; that which most successfully allows mankind to flourish in their lives (thanks Eudaimonist).

That being said, what good is a system of morality that is based on the arbitrary whim of deity? What does it really say about the system itself? What good does it do for us if it is only in place to glorify the being that put it in place? I understand that some of the moral commandments given by God are iherently good (that is, they allow for the flourishment of mankind), yet some of the moral commandments seem to be rather arbitrary. What do these moral commands accomplish, and what good are they?

When I give my children rules by which to abide, they may not understand at the time and it may not be most beneficial to them for me to explain as opposed to having them test and verify its validity. In regards to such situations of ambiguous rules or principles, over time hopefully they learn to understand the reasoning that I could not break down enough for them at initial deliverance and hopefully they will develop the ability to take the concept from one context and apply it to the applicable abstract. Your question deals with a few important variables that may alter the answer.

Of course, my analogy has a few premises that it focuses on~
Given: Perfection of the Authority
Given: Unknowing and Dependency of the Receiver

Enter the variable of Free Will and you get~
Best case scenario: Love, Trust and Benefit
Worse case scenario: Hate, Rebellion and Folly

Shalom
 
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tcampen

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It is quite easy to simply state that God is eternal and so is his morality, which is fixed and correct because of the source. However, determining what God's morality actually is varies greatly among people, even among those who rely on precisely the same religious texts as the source of God's morality.

As such, it is not fixed - at least not in the same manner that all informed, reasonable people can agree that there are 365.25 days in a year, or that rain comes from clouds, or the composition of pure water is usually H20. Such are fixed concepts not so readily subject to individual interpretation. Anything to do with God, however, inherently is. This is evidenced within Christianity, for example, by the thousands of different sects and countless more independent churches who differ in material ways on so many issues concerning God, including his morality.

This point of the OP, I believe, is that if God does have a morality, then that morality must make sense - even to our finite minds to at least some degree. For if it is simply based on God's fiat, then it is arbitrary...baseless, regardless of God's nature.

By applying an objective criteria for the effecacy to humanity of a certain act, morality can be determined. Criminal laws are a form of statutory morality determined by lawmakers not by simply copying the words from a religious text, but through a reasoned discussion and analysis of why a particular act is harmful, and should therefore be illegal - all independent of any particular religious mandate.

I have no problem with those who find their moral guidance through religion and faith, but however one determines morality, it should still make sense on some level independently of the source. Otherwise, we're stuck in a meaningless debate of "My God says X is wrong," and "Yea, but MY God says it isn't." Where's the objectivity in that?
 
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Randall McNally

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Lifesaver said:
Morality depends on the will of God, which is identical to His nature.
Does not compute.

Why argue via what amounts to a tautology? Fearless prediction: The word "nature" is used by some apologists to circumvent the Euthyphro Dilemma. Not that it is remotely clear how it allegedly does that.
 
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