Danhalen said:
If Bob and Hank base their moral foundation in reason, then it is not arbitrary. When we say that an action is moral because it allows for the flourishment of mankind, we have given a reason to say that action is moral. Not just because we say it is moral. Therein lay the difference.
Ok. But do you agree that Logic or reason itself is not sufficient enough to base morality on? For example, if you start off with a premise we both agree is immoral (like green people are evil), then we can use that premise and logic to suggest that green people should be killed. In short, regardless if you use logic or not, if the premise is flawed, then the result from the logic is flawed. Garbage in, garbage out. Right? I think you'll agree to that. So we have logic, which I agree is a GREAT thing to use, but ultimately we must have moral axioms to use with our logic. And these moral axioms are not themselves come by through logic, rather they are simply our starting points.
So either every man makes up his own starting points and it's arbitrary as you suggest, or God makes up the moral starting points, and again you are suggesting that that too would be arbitrary.
Danhalen said:
That is fine by me, but it says the same thing. God arbitrarily set morality in eternity. Does it really matter if God determined morality in a temporal reference versus an eternal one?
No, I don't think the within time or out of time makes a difference. The "God doesn't change" part is important is because it means God's moral axioms don't change. Whereas my personal made-up moral axiom today might be X but tomorrow is NOT X, God's moralily does not change. It's fixed, objective, absolute, ...
Danhalen said:
I do not think we need to decide if God is moral or not. If God is the arbiter of morality, then God transcends morality. Not to say that God is above the rules set forth, but God is the rule set forth.
It doesn't seem consistent to me to say God transcends morality and also IS the rule set forth. But by and large I do accept the "God is the rule set forth" sentence.
Danhalen said:
I disagree. If morality is an arbitrary judgement from God, it can still be objective (since God is the measure by which we judge morality). God is the hand that holds the glass, the glass is the universe, and morality is the water. God measures the depth of morality by the rim of the glass. The glass can be spilled or filled by God.
Ok... it becomes a moot point if God doesn't change, then he won't add or subtract water from the glass.
What about if we say God is the "moral rule set forth" and then Hank decides that while God says X is wrong, Hank wants X to be right. Is there any notion that Hank's personal idea about morality now becomes the objective standard? It seems to me that if morality changes, then we can't say that it actually is an absolute standard. This seems true by definition. If God can't or doesn't change, then all is good. But if God
could change or if people can someone suggest moral laws, then it appears to lose it's objectiveness, it's absoluteness (is that a word?).
Danhalen said:
God creates moral law. We can also say that God created morality with the universe. If God is the arbiter of morality, then God created morality. Are you implying that morality transcends God?
No, I was trying to say that the most amount of morality that can possibly exist must exist within God. Otherwise, there is not a true objective standard for morality, it's just something people make up. Without an objective standard, we can't measure or compare morality in the sense of what is more moral. In a similar way, without an order to the alphabet we can't objectively compare which letter comes before another letter.
So in short, either there is a real moral standard and that standard exists in God's virtue. He could have created it, but it wasn't arbitrary, rather it was just the only possible morality he could have created by his virtue. Or there is no real moral standard, and everyone's morality really no "better or worse" than anyone else's morality.
Danhalen said:
The truth is, we sometimes create things merely to please ourselves. We do this arbitrarily. I even sometimes create things that are later discarded by myself for no good reason. I don't see why God would not be capable of doing the same thing. Furthermore, since God is the only perfect thing in existence, then any decision to create would be an arbitrary decision since there is no need, other than perfect desire, to create anything.
Yes, we could assume that God might be capable of that. If God one minute says X is good, the next X is bad, then there is no longer the possiblity of a real moral standard. It truly is arbitrary at that point.
I think one of the reasons I don't jump to assume that God might be that way is that I don't see any reason to add multiple personalities or conflicting personalities to God. I think he can be explained with a single desire or at least a single, consistent set of desires. It's sort of using Occam's razor on God's personality or character.
The whole "If God is perfect then why did he need to create us" is a good question, but it seems pretty different from this topic. I'll be happy to address it in another thread or later if you'd like.
Danhalen said:
I don't understand how to tie in the last two points. It still seems to me a rather arbitrary decision based on the text you have provided. As far as specific laws, I have no questions. It seems to me that all of morality becomes arbitrary if God just decided what was moral.
If God is an omnipotent being, capable of being perfectly logical, then doesn't it stand to reason that he also can use "reason" to come up with his moral law? I guess I don't understand why you think some being far more intelligent will come up with an arbitrary moral law while you think that you are going to use "reason and logic" and come up with something that's not arbitrary.
Going back to what I said up top... if we can use logic to come to any conclusion as long as we start with certain premises, and we get to make up the premises, then why does it matter that we use logic?
For example...
x = our premise
f(x) logic function
f(x) = 2x + 1
So if 7 means "we should all love our neighbors as ourselves" and 9 is "murder your friends", the the fact that we use logic is neat, but plug in 3 or 4, use logic, and we still get very different moral laws. Ultimately if we make it up it still seems very arbitrary.
And maybe this is your point. You said you are a moral relativist, right? Meaning that you don't believe there is a real moral right. So "love your neighbors" is not morally better or worse than "kill your neighbors". Is that right?