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Acts points out that the Jews in Jerusalem considered Hebrew scripture, and the Hebrew language to be the gold standard. When Paul switches to speaking Hebrew in Jerusalem the entire rabble becomes quiet. So the LXX was considered a concession to Jews outside of Israel - I doubt that they would view it as a correction to the Hebrew Bible.Please, explain. Why do you say this, the LXX says "the virgin shall conceive" it does say an ambiguous "the young women shall conceive" as the Hebrew may, I say may because it can also be translated "the virgin shall conceive"
In any case I am not trying to argue against the virgin birth as a teaching of the OT - just that the NT non-Christian Jews of Mary's day, of Christ's day did not appear to know about it.
Well as your OP points out - she was certainly surprised to hear about the virgin birth idea and as you admit - no one is recorded in the NT as "expecting such a thing" prior to someone telling them about it.so, why do you claim that Blessed Mary was one among many Jews who were unaware of Isaiah 7:14 in the LXX
Because it shows the context for what she was thinking. She and her peers did not expect such a thing - her own statements show surprise on her part.and possibly in the Hebrew too? And, additionally, why would this alleged Jewish lack of expectation of a virgin giving birth to Messiah explain Mary's specific reaction;
It is very unclear that her "surprise" was that "She is a virgin" . That would be a very difficult idea to prove.namely that she expressed surprise because she is a virgin'
Rather it is the idea that a virgin would give birth.
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