This is something I still don't get, really. Start with this basis: Anyone in the US can write virtually any contract they want to. Why does the inability to call a given contract "marriage" have any bearing on equality? To me, it's a bit like a person suing because they want to call their loan for their car a "mortgage." Certain sorts of contracts have certain names attached to them. Applying one name to another sort of contract doesn't make the contracts the same.
Now, in the case of marriage--the problem is we want to spend time talking about how it's one interpretation of the Scriptures vs "equal rights." Since some folks think it's a matter of interpretation (I think the Scriptures a really clear, but many won't agree), let's just leave the interpretation out of the picture. And the easy way to do this is to leave the Scriptures entirely out of the picture, just for a moment, and deal with the "equal rights" issue without them.
What does this leave us with? The logical reasoning behind marriage in the first place. And what is that reasoning? Well, lets go back to Rome, for instance. They certainly didn't have a problem with homsexuality, but they didn't have "gay marriage." Why is that? They also didn't seem to think abortion was wrong for religious reasons, but they still outlawed it. Why?
Because they understood a simple fact: Men and women, when tied together, tend to have babies. Not always, but most of the time. The mental and physical well being of the child is generally tied to their mother and father being together, in the same house, raising them. Roman law didn't care about sex at all--affairs were fine, homosexuality was fine, etc, etc. What Roman law cared about was babies. Why? Because babies perpetuate the nation.
Now, you can argue that we shouldn't care any longer (and I would argue we should care). You can argue that homsexual couples can have babies (yes, but because you can do a thing doesn't mean you should). You can argue that homosexual parents, or single parents, do just as good raising children as man/woman couples do--and there you have to argue with study after study showing this to be wrong. That while such situations exist, they are not ideal for the children.
But, in the end, to make the case that this is about equality, and not the best interests of the society, you have to prove the underlying assumptions that men and women, together, tend to have babies, and that a father/mother couple is better at raising children than any other situation, are both completely wrong.
I have yet to see any evidence to show these two are not true.
So, am I "anti-gay?" No, not particularly. I think it's sad we live our lives so much around sex that we want sex to define marriage, but that's a societal problem, not a "gay" problem. We sell most of the products in our society based on sex, make "being sexy" virtually synonymous with "being healthy," and all love stories end with "sex ever after." Maybe if we just got out of the hyper sexual mode, we would see that marriage isn't about giving a license to have sex, and hence, gay marriage has nothing to do with "equality."
Just my 2c.
Russ
P.S. And no, a lot of married couples no longer have children, and yes, someone is going to throw that up here. That shows nothing about the natural order of things, or what's best for society, as a whole. All that goes to show is just how oversexed our society is in one more way.